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NEET Question Paper 2020 English Set F6

2020
NEET · Previous Year Question Paper
www.iget.in
Q1.

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of ion is:

A
B
C
D
Q2.

Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

ACetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
BSodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
CSodium lauryl sulphate
DSodium stearate
Q3.

Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?

A[Diagram: N,N-dimethylaniline structure]option A
B[Diagram: N-methylaniline structure]option B
C[Diagram: Primary aniline structure]option C
D[Diagram: N-methylbenzylamine structure]option D
Q4.

Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

ANitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
BBoron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
CAmmonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
DBoron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
Q5.

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

Apolybutadiene
Bpoly(Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
Ccis-1,4-polyisoprene
Dpoly(Butadiene-styrene)
Q6.

Match the following and identify the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

A(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
B(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
C(iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
D(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Q7.

An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in:

Athreshold energy
Bcollision frequency
Cactivation energy
Dheat of reaction
Q8.

The freezing point depression constant () of benzene is . The freezing point depression for the solution of molality containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

A
B
C
D
Q9.

Identify a molecule which does not exist.

A
B
C
D
Q10.

What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?

A to
B to
C to
D to
Q11.

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

ACalcium
BPotassium
CIron
DCopper
Q12.

Match the following:

Which of the following is correct option?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

A(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
B(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
C(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
D(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Q13.

Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as:

ACross Cannizzaro's reaction
BCross Aldol condensation
CAldol condensation
DCannizzaro's reaction
Q14.

Anisole on cleavage with HI gives:

Aoption A
Boption B
Coption C
Doption D
Q15.

For the reaction, , the correct option is:

A and
B and
C and
D and
Q16.

Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.

(b) The structure of contain twelve six membered rings and twenty five carbon rings.

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.

(d) CO is colourless and odourless gas.

A(b) and (c) only
B(c) and (d) only
C(a), (b) and (c) only
D(a) and (c) only
Q17.

Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

An-Heptane
Bn-Butane
Cn-Hexane
D2,3-Dimethylbutane
Q18.

HCl was passed through a solution of , and . Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

AOnly
B, and
CBoth and
DOnly
Q19.

Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

A of [Atomic mass of O = 16]
B of [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
C of [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]
D of [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
Q20.

A mixture of and Argon in a cylinder contains of and of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is , the partial pressure of is:

[Use atomic masses (in g mol): N = 14, Ar = 40]

A
B
C
D
Q21.

Identify the incorrect statement.

AInterstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
BThe oxidation states of chromium in and are not the same.
C () is a stronger reducing agent than () in water.
DThe transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
Q22.

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:

A, and
B, and
C, and
D, and
Q23.

The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is:

AAcetone + Chloroform
BChloroethane + Bromoethane
CEthanol + Acetone
DBenzene + Toluene
Q24.

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has linkage?

A, peroxodisulphuric acid
B, pyrosulphuric acid
C, sulphurous acid
D, sulphuric acid
Q25.

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:

A-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
B-D-Fructose + -D-Fructose
C-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
D-D-Glucose + -D-Glucose
Q26.

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are:

A71, 71 and 104
B175, 104 and 71
C71, 104 and 71
D104, 71 and 71
Q27.

On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be:

A gas
B gas
CHydrogen gas
DOxygen gas
Q28.

A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

A effect of groups
BHyperconjugation
C effect of groups
D effect of groups
Q29.

Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?

A
B
C
D
Q30.

Identify the incorrect match.

A(c), (iii)
B(d), (iv)
C(a), (i)
D(b), (ii)
Q31.

The rate constant for a first order reaction is . The time required to reduce of the reactant to is:

A
B
C
D
Q32.

An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of . The atomic radius is:

A
B
C
D
Q33.

Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions:

[Diagram showing benzene ring with CH3 group converting to compound X (with CHCl2), then to aldehyde]

img1
Aoption A
Boption B
Coption C
Doption D
Q34.

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?

A
B
C
D
Q35.

Paper chromatography is an example of:

AThin layer chromatography
BColumn chromatography
CAdsorption chromatography
DPartition chromatography
Q36.

Identify the correct statement from the following:

AVapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.
BPig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.
CWrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.
DBlister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of .
Q37.

Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.

If the equilibrium constant () is at , the value of at the same temperature will be:

A
B
C
D
Q38.

The number of Faradays(F) required to produce of calcium from molten (Atomic mass of Ca = ) is:

A3
B4
C1
D2
Q39.

Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

ATyrosine
BLysine
CSerine
DAlanine
Q40.

An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is:

Aoption A
Boption B
Coption C
Doption D
Q41.

Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

AStability of the colloidal particles
BSize of the colloidal particles
CViscosity
DSolubility
Q42.

Find out the solubility of in . Given that the ionic product of is .

A
B
C
D
Q43.

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

AThe carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.
BIt is produced due to incomplete combustion.
CIt forms carboxyhaemoglobin.
DIt reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.
Q44.

Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

ATert. butyl alcohol
BIsobutyl alcohol
CIsopropyl alcohol
DSec. butyl alcohol
Q45.

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:

(a) -Elimination reaction

(b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydration reaction

A(b), (c), (d)
B(a), (b), (d)
C(a), (b), (c)
D(a), (c), (d)
Q46.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

A(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
B(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
C(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
D(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Q47.

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

A(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
B(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
C(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
D(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
Q48.

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

AAtrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction
BDecrease in secretion of renin by jG cells
CMore water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH
DReabsorption of Na and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone
Q49.

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:

Acaseinogen into casein
Bpepsinogen into pepsin
Cprotein into polypeptides
Dtrypsinogen into trypsin
Q50.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

A(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
B(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
C(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
D(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Q51.

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:

AProp roots
BLateral roots
CFibrous roots
DPrimary roots
Q52.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

A(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
B(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
C(ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
D(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Q53.

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:

ANucellus
BChalaza
CHilum
DMicropyle
Q54.

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:

AFemale gametocytes
BMale gametocytes
CTrophozoites
DSporozoites
Q55.

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

AThey are useful in genetic engineering.
BSticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.
CEach restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
DThey cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
Q56.

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

AThey lie free in the cytoplasm.
BThese represent reserve material in cytoplasm.
CThey are not bound by any membrane.
DThese are involved in ingestion of food particles.
Q57.

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

ADiplotene
BLeptotene
CPachytene
DZygotene
Q58.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.

AWhen and are present together, they express same type of sugar.
BAllele 'i' does not produce any sugar.
CThe gene (I) has three alleles.
DA person will have only two of the three alleles.
Q59.

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

AAIDS, Malaria, Filaria
BCancer, AIDS, Syphilis
CGonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
DGonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
Q60.

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

AEffluents of primary treatment
BActivated sludge
CPrimary sludge
DFloating debris
Q61.

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

Awind and water
Binsects and water
Cinsects or wind
Dwater currents only
Q62.

Identify the incorrect statement.

ASapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
BDue to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.
CHeart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
DSapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.
Q63.

Ray florets have:

AHypogynous ovary
BHalf inferior ovary
CInferior ovary
DSuperior ovary
Q64.

Identify the correct statement with regard to phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

ACell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.
BNuclear Division takes place.
CDNA synthesis or replication takes place.
DReorganisation of all cell components takes place.
Q65.

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:

A and
B and
C and
D and
Q66.

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:

ADefence action
BEffect on reproduction
CNutritive value
DGrowth response
Q67.

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

ALectin
BInsulin
CHaemoglobin
DCollagen
Q68.

The process of growth is maximum during:

ASenescence
BDormancy
CLog phase
DLag phase
Q69.

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:

A50 million
B7 million
C1.5 million
D20 million
Q70.

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:

AChondrocytes
BCompound epithelial cells
CSquamous epithelial cells
DColumnar epithelial cells
Q71.

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

AEthylene
BAbscisic acid
CCytokinin
DGibberellin
Q72.

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

AAnabaena and Volvox
BChlorella and Spirulina
CLaminaria and Sargassum
DGelidium and Gracilaria
Q73.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits, (b) Heterocercal caudal fin, (c) Air Bladder, (d) Poison sting

Column - II: (i) Trygon, (ii) Cyclostomes, (iii) Chondrichthyes, (iv) Osteichthyes

A(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Q74.

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomata animals are exemplified by:

AAschelminthes
BAnnelida
CCtenophora
DPlatyhelminthes
Q75.

The ovary is half inferior in:

ASunflower
BPlum
CBrinjal
DMustard
Q76.

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

AHimalayas
BAmazon forests
CWestern Ghats of India
DMadagascar
Q77.

By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaner ewes and Marino rams?

ACross breeding
BInbreeding
COut crossing
DMutational breeding
Q78.

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

A14
B8
C4
D2
Q79.

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:

APS-I to NADP
BPS-I to ATP synthase
CPS-II to Cytbf complex
DCytbf complex to PS-I
Q80.

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

ADNA polymerase
BRNA polymerase
CDNA ligase
DDNA helicase
Q81.

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants:

Column - I: (a) Iron, (b) Zinc, (c) Boron, (d) Manganese

Column - II: (i) Photolysis of water, (ii) Pollen germination, (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis, (iv) IAA biosynthesis

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
D(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Q82.

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

A(b), (c) and (d)
Bonly (d)
Conly (a)
D(a) and (c)
Q83.

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:

A1 molecule of 6-C compound
B1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound
C2 molecules of 3-C compound
D1 molecule of 3-C compound
Q84.

Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:

AHigh reflection of light from snow
BDamage to retina caused by infra-red rays
CFreezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature
DInflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
Q85.

Floridean starch has structure similar to:

AMannitol and algin
BLaminarin and cellulose
CStarch and cellulose
DAmylopectin and glycogen
Q86.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Bt cotton, (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency, (c) RNAi, (d) PCR

Column - II: (i) Gene therapy, (ii) Cellular defence, (iii) Detection of HIV infection, (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Q87.

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:

AAfter zygote formation
BAt the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
CPrior to ovulation
DAt the time of copulation
Q88.

From his experiments, S.L Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:

A and water vapor at
B and water vapor at
C and water vapor at
D and water vapor at
Q89.

Choose the correct pair from the following:

ANucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA
BExonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA
CLigases - Join the two DNA molecules
DPolymerases - Break the DNA into fragments
Q90.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Placenta, (b) Zona pellucida, (c) Bulbo-urethral glands, (d) Leydig cells

Column - II: (i) Androgens, (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), (iii) Layer of the ovum, (iv) Lubrication of the Penis

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
C(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
D(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Q91.

Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?

A(a) and (b)
B(b) and (c)
C(d) and (c)
D(c) and (a)
Q92.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

AHigh H conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhemoglobin.
BLow pCO in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhemoglobin.
CBinding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O.
DPartial pressure of CO can interfere with O binding with hemoglobin.
Q93.

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:

ABoveri
BMorgan
CMendel
DSutton
Q94.

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:

APalindromic sequence
BRecognition site
CSelectable marker
DOri site
Q95.

Select the correct statement.

AInsulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.
BInsulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
CGlucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
DGlucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
Q96.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

AActive immunity is quick and gives full response.
BFoetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
CWhen exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called "Active immunity".
DWhen ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called "Passive immunity".
Q97.

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

AGolgi bodies
BPolysomes
CEndoplasmic reticulum
DPeroxisomes
Q98.

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

Column - I: (a) Fourth trophic level, (b) Second trophic level, (c) First trophic level, (d) Third trophic level

Column - II: (i) Crow, (ii) Vulture, (iii) Rabbit, (iv) Grass

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Q99.

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

ALysine
BValine
CTyrosine
DGlutamic Acid
Q100.

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

ACharles Darwin
BOparin
CKarl Ernst von Baer
DAlfred Wallace
Q101.

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features: Identify the category of plant and its part:

ADicotyledonous stem
BDicotyledonous root
CMonocotyledonous stem
DMonocotyledonous root
Q102.

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (). This process occurs at the end of:

AS phase
B phase
CM phase
D phase
Q103.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

ADepolarisation of ventricles
BRepolarisation of ventricles
CRepolarisation of auricles
DDepolarisation of auricles
Q104.

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:

ATwo
BThree
CZero
DOne
Q105.

Strobili or cones are found in:

AMarchantia
BEquisetum
CSalvinia
DPteris
Q106.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

AKetonuria and Glycosuria
BRenal calculi and Hyperglycaemia
CUremia and Ketonuria
DUremia and Renal Calculi
Q107.

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

AIndustrial melanism
BNatural selection
CAdaptive radiation
DConvergent evolution
Q108.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

AThe functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
BGenetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.
CIn man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.
DThe proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.
Q109.

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:

Aproximal convoluted tubule of nephron
Beustachian tube
Clining of intestine
Dducts of salivary glands
Q110.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Organ of Corti, (b) Cochlea, (c) Eustachian tube, (d) Stapes

Column - II: (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx, (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth, (iii) Attached to the oval window, (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Q111.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Eosinophils, (b) Basophils, (c) Neutrophils, (d) Lymphocytes

Column - II: (i) Immune response, (ii) Phagocytosis, (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes, (iv) Release granules containing histamine

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Q112.

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

AICSI and ZIFT
BGIFT and ICSI
CZIFT and IUT
DGIFT and ZIFT
Q113.

The first phase of translation is:

AAminoacylation of tRNA
BRecognition of an anti-codon
CBinding of mRNA to ribosome
DRecognition of DNA molecule
Q114.

Match the following:

Column - I: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity, (b) Possess peptide bonds, (c) Cell wall material in fungi, (d) Secondary metabolite

Column - II: (i) Ricin, (ii) Malonate, (iii) Chitin, (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following:

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Q115.

Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

APhenolic acid
BPara-ascorbic acid
CGibberellic acid
DAbscisic acid
Q116.

The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other:

A(c) and (d)
B(a) and (d)
C(a) only
D(a), (b) and (c)
Q117.

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:

ARelease of Green House gases
BDisposal of e-wastes
CTransport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another
DEmission of ozone depleting substances
Q118.

Which of the following is correct about viroids?

AThey have DNA with protein coat.
BThey have free DNA without protein coat.
CThey have RNA with protein coat.
DThey have free RNA without protein coat.
Q119.

Which of the following statements is correct?

AAdenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.
BAdenine does not pair with thymine.
CAdenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.
DAdenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.
Q120.

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:

AAcetocarmine in UV radiation
BEthidium bromide in infrared radiation
CAcetocarmine in bright blue light
DEthidium bromide in UV radiation
Q121.

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

AIleum is a highly coiled part.
BVermiform appendix arises from duodenum.
CIleum opens into small intestine.
DSerosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.
Q122.

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:

Q123.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest, (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry, (c) Book lungs, (d) Bioluminescence

Column - II: (i) Asterias, (ii) Scorpion, (iii) Ctenoplana, (iv) Locusta

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
D(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Q124.

Select the correct match.

ASickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11
BThalassaemia - X linked
CHaemophilia - Y linked
DPhenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait
Q125.

In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

AGross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.
BThere is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.
CGross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
DGross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
Q126.

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:

APlant nematodes
BInsect predators
CInsect pests
DFungal diseases
Q127.

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

A(a), (b) and (d)
Bonly (d)
C(a) and (b)
D(c) and (d)
Q128.

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

AMortality
BSpecies interaction
CSex ratio
DNatality
Q129.

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:

AImbibition
BPlasmolysis
CTranspiration
DRoot pressure
Q130.

Match the following with respect to meiosis:

Column - I: (a) Zygotene, (b) Pachytene, (c) Diplotene, (d) Diakinesis

Column - II: (i) Terminalization, (ii) Chiasmata, (iii) Crossing over, (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following:

A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
C(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
D(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Q131.

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:

Athe head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.
Bthe head holds a rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.
Cthe supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.
Dthe cockroach does not have nervous system.
Q132.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Typhoid, (b) Pneumonia, (c) Filariasis, (d) Malaria

Column - II: (i) Wuchereria, (ii) Plasmodium, (iii) Salmonella, (iv) Haemophilus

Select the correct option:

A(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
B(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iii)
C(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Q133.

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:

AAmmonia and oxygen
BAmmonia and hydrogen
CAmmonia alone
DNitrate alone
Q134.

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

ALow concentration of LH
Q135.

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure:

ACellulose, lecithin
BInulin, insulin
CChitin, cholesterol
DGlycerol, trypsin
Q136.

A charged particle having drift velocity of in an electric field of , has a mobility in of:

A
B
C
D
Q137.

The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter and number density can be expressed as:

A
B
C
D
Q138.

The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is:

A
B
C
D
Q139.

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is:

A
B
C
D
Q140.

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is:

()

A
B
C
D
Q141.

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii and () through 1 K are in the ratio:

A
B
C
D
Q142.

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 μF. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μF. The permittivity of the medium is:

()

A
B
C
D
Q143.

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of . The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of with the dipole axis is:

A400 V
Bzero
C50 V
D200 V
Q144.

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.

The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:

A67 cm
B80 cm
C33 cm
D50 cm
Q145.

The Brewsters angle for an interface should be:

A
B
C
D
Q146.

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

ADeuteron atom
BSingly ionised neon atom (Ne)
CHydrogen atom
DSingly ionised helium atom (He)
Q147.

Find the torque about the origin when a force of acts on a particle whose position vector is .

A
B
C
D
Q148.

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

ABoth emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.
BThe base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
CBase, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.
DBase, emitter and collector regions should have same size.
Q149.

Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for copper? [Diagram: four graphs showing different curves]

Aoption A
Boption B
Coption C
Doption D
Q150.

A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?

A
B
C
D
Q151.

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.

The pitch of the screw gauge is:

A0.5 mm
B1.0 mm
C0.01 mm
D0.25 mm
Q152.

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:

A1.0
B
Czero
D0.5
Q153.

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is: ()

A320 m
B300 m
C360 m
D340 m
Q154.

A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

A30 N
B24 N
C48 N
D32 N
Q155.

The energy required to break one bond in DNA is . This value in eV is nearly:

A0.06
B0.006
C6
D0.6
Q156.

A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young's modulus is:

A
B
C
D
Q157.

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is , the potential difference is:

A
B
C
D
Q158.

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity () is:

img1
Ag/5
Bg/10
Cg
Dg/2
Q159.

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

Aone-fourth
Bzero
Cdoubled
Dfour times
Q160.

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of ?

A9.980 m
B9.9 m
C9.9801 m
D9.98 m
Q161.

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to:

A
B
C
D
Q162.

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

Aboth forward bias and reverse bias
Bincrease in forward current
Cforward bias only
Dreverse bias only
Q163.

In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

A536 Hz
B537 Hz
C523 Hz
D524 Hz
Q164.

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is: ( = speed of electromagnetic waves)

A
B
C
D
Q165.

In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

A1 N/C
B5 N/C
Czero
D0.5 N/C
Q166.

In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

Afour times
Bone-fourth
Cdouble
Dhalf
Q167.

For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: [Diagram: logic circuit with NOT, AND gates]

img1
A[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]
B[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]
C[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]
D[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]
Q168.

A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is:

A
B
C
D
Q169.

When a uranium isotope is bombarded with a neutron, it generates , three neutrons and:

A
B
C
D
Q170.

The color code of a resistance is given below:

[Diagram: resistor color bands - Yellow, Violet, Brown, Gold]

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are:

img1
A4.7 kΩ, 5%
B470 Ω, 5%
C470 kΩ, 5%
D47 kΩ, 10%
Q171.

A capillary tube of radius is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height . The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

A10.0 g
B20.0 g
C2.5 g
D5.0 g
Q172.

A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is: ()

A0.1 kg/m
B0.02 kg/m
C0.5 kg/m
D0.2 kg/m
Q173.

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:

Asemiconductors only
Binsulators and semiconductors
Cmetals
Dinsulators only
Q174.

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is: ( is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

A
B
C
D
Q175.

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

A
B
C
D
Q176.

Dimensions of stress are:

A
B
C
D
Q177.

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

Aisochoric
Bisobaric
Cisothermal
Dadiabatic
Q178.

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m. The permeability of the material of the rod is:

()

A
B
C
D
Q179.

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

A
Bzero
C
D
Q180.

A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:

A2.5 A
B25.1 A
C1.7 A
D2.05 A

Answer Key

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. D
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. C
56. D
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. A
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. C
66. A
67. D
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. D
72. B
73. C
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. B
84. A
85. D
86. C
87. B
88.
89. C
90. A
91. D
92. A
93. B
94. D
95. C
96. A
97. A
98. C
99. A
100. C
101. A
102. D
103. A
104. A
105. B
106. A
107. D
108. A
109. A
110. A
111. C
112. D
113. A
114. C
115. C
116. A
117. D
118. D
119. C
120. D
121. A
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. D
126. C
127. A
128. B
129. D
130. D
131. A
132. D
133. B
134.
135. B
136. A
137. D
138. D
139. C
140. C
141. C
142. D
143. B
144. C
145. A
146. A
147. C
148. B
149. A
150. D
151. B
152. A
153. C
154. C
155. D
156. B
157. A
158. A
159. B
160. B
161. A
162. D
163. D
164. D
165. C
166. C
167. A
168. D
169. C
170. B
171. D
172. D
173. B
174. D
175. B
176. B
177. C
178. C
179. C
180. D
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