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NEET Question Paper 2020 English Set F6

2020
English Set F6 NEET QP 2020 · Previous Year Question Paper
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Q1.

The calculated spin only magnetic moment of ion is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q2.

Which of the following is a cationic detergent?

A.

Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide

B.

Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate

C.

Sodium lauryl sulphate

D.

Sodium stearate

Q3.

Which of the following amine will give the carbylamine test?

A.

[Diagram: N,N-dimethylaniline structure]

option A
B.

[Diagram: N-methylaniline structure]

option B
C.

[Diagram: Primary aniline structure]

option C
D.

[Diagram: N-methylbenzylamine structure]

option D
Q4.

Which of the following set of molecules will have zero dipole moment?

A.

Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

B.

Boron trifluoride, beryllium difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

C.

Ammonia, beryllium difluoride, water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene

D.

Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene

Q5.

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

A.

polybutadiene

B.

poly(Butadiene-acrylonitrile)

C.

cis-1,4-polyisoprene

D.

poly(Butadiene-styrene)

Q6.

Match the following and identify the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

A.

(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

B.

(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

C.

(iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

D.

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Q7.

An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in:

A.

threshold energy

B.

collision frequency

C.

activation energy

D.

heat of reaction

Q8.

The freezing point depression constant () of benzene is . The freezing point depression for the solution of molality containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded off upto two decimal places):

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q9.

Identify a molecule which does not exist.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q10.

What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction?

A.

to

B.

to

C.

to

D.

to

Q11.

The following metal ion activates many enzymes, participates in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is responsible for the transmission of nerve signals.

A.

Calcium

B.

Potassium

C.

Iron

D.

Copper

Q12.

Match the following:

Which of the following is correct option?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

A.

(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

B.

(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

C.

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

D.

(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Q13.

Reaction between benzaldehyde and acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH is known as:

A.

Cross Cannizzaro's reaction

B.

Cross Aldol condensation

C.

Aldol condensation

D.

Cannizzaro's reaction

Q14.

Anisole on cleavage with HI gives:

A.option A
B.option B
C.option C
D.option D
Q15.

For the reaction, , the correct option is:

A.

and

B.

and

C.

and

D.

and

Q16.

Identify the correct statements from the following:

(a) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.

(b) The structure of contain twelve six membered rings and twenty five carbon rings.

(c) ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to convert alcohols into gasoline.

(d) CO is colourless and odourless gas.

A.

(b) and (c) only

B.

(c) and (d) only

C.

(a), (b) and (c) only

D.

(a) and (c) only

Q17.

Which of the following alkane cannot be made in good yield by Wurtz reaction?

A.

n-Heptane

B.

n-Butane

C.

n-Hexane

D.

2,3-Dimethylbutane

Q18.

HCl was passed through a solution of , and . Which of the following compound(s) crystallise(s)?

A.

Only

B.

, and

C.

Both and

D.

Only

Q19.

Which one of the following has maximum number of atoms?

A.

of [Atomic mass of O = 16]

B.

of [Atomic mass of Li = 7]

C.

of [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

D.

of [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]

Q20.

A mixture of and Argon in a cylinder contains of and of Ar. If the total pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is , the partial pressure of is:

[Use atomic masses (in g mol): N = 14, Ar = 40]

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q21.

Identify the incorrect statement.

A.

Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.

B.

The oxidation states of chromium in and are not the same.

C.

() is a stronger reducing agent than () in water.

D.

The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.

Q22.

The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is:

A.

, and

B.

, and

C.

, and

D.

, and

Q23.

The mixture which shows positive deviation from Raoult's law is:

A.

Acetone + Chloroform

B.

Chloroethane + Bromoethane

C.

Ethanol + Acetone

D.

Benzene + Toluene

Q24.

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has linkage?

A.

, peroxodisulphuric acid

B.

, pyrosulphuric acid

C.

, sulphurous acid

D.

, sulphuric acid

Q25.

Sucrose on hydrolysis gives:

A.

-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

B.

-D-Fructose + -D-Fructose

C.

-D-Glucose + -D-Fructose

D.

-D-Glucose + -D-Glucose

Q26.

The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are:

A.

71, 71 and 104

B.

175, 104 and 71

C.

71, 104 and 71

D.

104, 71 and 71

Q27.

On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at anode will be:

A.

gas

B.

gas

C.

Hydrogen gas

D.

Oxygen gas

Q28.

A tertiary butyl carbocation is more stable than a secondary butyl carbocation because of which of the following?

A.

effect of groups

B.

Hyperconjugation

C.

effect of groups

D.

effect of groups

Q29.

Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q30.

Identify the incorrect match.

(1) (c), (iii)

(2) (d), (iv)

(3) (a), (i)

(4) (b), (ii)

A.

(c), (iii)

B.

(d), (iv)

C.

(a), (i)

D.

(b), (ii)

Q31.

The rate constant for a first order reaction is . The time required to reduce of the reactant to is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q32.

An element has a body centered cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of . The atomic radius is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q33.

Identify compound X in the following sequence of reactions:

[Diagram showing benzene ring with CH3 group converting to compound X (with CHCl2), then to aldehyde]

img1
A.option A
B.option B
C.option C
D.option D
Q34.

Which of the following is the correct order of increasing field strength of ligands to form coordination compounds?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q35.

Paper chromatography is an example of:

A.

Thin layer chromatography

B.

Column chromatography

C.

Adsorption chromatography

D.

Partition chromatography

Q36.

Identify the correct statement from the following:

A.

Vapour phase refining is carried out for Nickel by Van Arkel method.

B.

Pig iron can be moulded into a variety of shapes.

C.

Wrought iron is impure iron with 4% carbon.

D.

Blister copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of .

Q37.

Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the following reaction.

If the equilibrium constant () is at , the value of at the same temperature will be:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q38.

The number of Faradays(F) required to produce of calcium from molten (Atomic mass of Ca = ) is:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

1

D.

2

Q39.

Which of the following is a basic amino acid?

A.

Tyrosine

B.

Lysine

C.

Serine

D.

Alanine

Q40.

An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one of the product. Its structure is:

A.option A
B.option B
C.option C
D.option D
Q41.

Measuring Zeta potential is useful in determining which property of colloidal solution?

A.

Stability of the colloidal particles

B.

Size of the colloidal particles

C.

Viscosity

D.

Solubility

Q42.

Find out the solubility of in . Given that the ionic product of is .

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q43.

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

A.

The carboxyhaemoglobin (haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable than oxyhaemoglobin.

B.

It is produced due to incomplete combustion.

C.

It forms carboxyhaemoglobin.

D.

It reduces oxygen carrying ability of blood.

Q44.

Reaction between acetone and methylmagnesium chloride followed by hydrolysis will give:

A.

Tert. butyl alcohol

B.

Isobutyl alcohol

C.

Isopropyl alcohol

D.

Sec. butyl alcohol

Q45.

Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane to form pent-2-ene is:

(a) -Elimination reaction

(b) Follows Zaitsev rule

(c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction

(d) Dehydration reaction

A.

(b), (c), (d)

B.

(a), (b), (d)

C.

(a), (b), (c)

D.

(a), (c), (d)

Q46.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

A.

(i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

B.

(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

C.

(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

D.

(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Q47.

Match the organism with its use in biotechnology.

Select the correct option from the following:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

A.

(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

B.

(iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

C.

(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)

D.

(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

Q48.

Which of the following would help in prevention of diuresis?

A.

Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasoconstriction

B.

Decrease in secretion of renin by jG cells

C.

More water reabsorption due to undersecretion of ADH

D.

Reabsorption of Na and water from renal tubules due to aldosterone

Q49.

The enzyme enterokinase helps in conversion of:

A.

caseinogen into casein

B.

pepsinogen into pepsin

C.

protein into polypeptides

D.

trypsinogen into trypsin

Q50.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

A.

(iii), (i), (iv), (ii)

B.

(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

C.

(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

D.

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

Q51.

The roots that originate from the base of the stem are:

A.

Prop roots

B.

Lateral roots

C.

Fibrous roots

D.

Primary roots

Q52.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

A.

(iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

B.

(iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

C.

(ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

D.

(i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Q53.

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at:

A.

Nucellus

B.

Chalaza

C.

Hilum

D.

Micropyle

Q54.

The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is:

A.

Female gametocytes

B.

Male gametocytes

C.

Trophozoites

D.

Sporozoites

Q55.

Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.

A.

They are useful in genetic engineering.

B.

Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

C.

Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.

D.

They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.

Q56.

Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect?

A.

They lie free in the cytoplasm.

B.

These represent reserve material in cytoplasm.

C.

They are not bound by any membrane.

D.

These are involved in ingestion of food particles.

Q57.

Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during:

A.

Diplotene

B.

Leptotene

C.

Pachytene

D.

Zygotene

Q58.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene 'I' that controls ABO blood groups.

A.

When and are present together, they express same type of sugar.

B.

Allele 'i' does not produce any sugar.

C.

The gene (I) has three alleles.

D.

A person will have only two of the three alleles.

Q59.

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

A.

AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

B.

Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

C.

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

D.

Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

Q60.

Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?

A.

Effluents of primary treatment

B.

Activated sludge

C.

Primary sludge

D.

Floating debris

Q61.

In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by:

A.

wind and water

B.

insects and water

C.

insects or wind

D.

water currents only

Q62.

Identify the incorrect statement.

A.

Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.

B.

Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour.

C.

Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.

D.

Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root to leaf.

Q63.

Ray florets have:

A.

Hypogynous ovary

B.

Half inferior ovary

C.

Inferior ovary

D.

Superior ovary

Q64.

Identify the correct statement with regard to phase (Gap 1) of interphase.

A.

Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA.

B.

Nuclear Division takes place.

C.

DNA synthesis or replication takes place.

D.

Reorganisation of all cell components takes place.

Q65.

The specific palindromic sequence which is recognized by EcoRI is:

A.

and

B.

and

C.

and

D.

and

Q66.

Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are produced by plants for their:

A.

Defence action

B.

Effect on reproduction

C.

Nutritive value

D.

Growth response

Q67.

Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals?

A.

Lectin

B.

Insulin

C.

Haemoglobin

D.

Collagen

Q68.

The process of growth is maximum during:

A.

Senescence

B.

Dormancy

C.

Log phase

D.

Lag phase

Q69.

According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about:

A.

50 million

B.

7 million

C.

1.5 million

D.

20 million

Q70.

Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from:

A.

Chondrocytes

B.

Compound epithelial cells

C.

Squamous epithelial cells

D.

Columnar epithelial cells

Q71.

Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.

A.

Ethylene

B.

Abscisic acid

C.

Cytokinin

D.

Gibberellin

Q72.

Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae?

A.

Anabaena and Volvox

B.

Chlorella and Spirulina

C.

Laminaria and Sargassum

D.

Gelidium and Gracilaria

Q73.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) 6 - 15 pairs of gill slits, (b) Heterocercal caudal fin, (c) Air Bladder, (d) Poison sting

Column - II: (i) Trygon, (ii) Cyclostomes, (iii) Chondrichthyes, (iv) Osteichthyes

A.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B.

(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q74.

Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomata animals are exemplified by:

A.

Aschelminthes

B.

Annelida

C.

Ctenophora

D.

Platyhelminthes

Q75.

The ovary is half inferior in:

A.

Sunflower

B.

Plum

C.

Brinjal

D.

Mustard

Q76.

Which of the following regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity?

A.

Himalayas

B.

Amazon forests

C.

Western Ghats of India

D.

Madagascar

Q77.

By which method was a new breed 'Hisardale' of sheep formed by using Bikaner ewes and Marino rams?

A.

Cross breeding

B.

Inbreeding

C.

Out crossing

D.

Mutational breeding

Q78.

How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in one character with contrasting traits?

A.

14

B.

8

C.

4

D.

2

Q79.

In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from:

A.

PS-I to NADP

B.

PS-I to ATP synthase

C.

PS-II to Cytbf complex

D.

Cytbf complex to PS-I

Q80.

Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

RNA polymerase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

DNA helicase

Q81.

Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants:

Column - I: (a) Iron, (b) Zinc, (c) Boron, (d) Manganese

Column - II: (i) Photolysis of water, (ii) Pollen germination, (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis, (iv) IAA biosynthesis

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

B.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

C.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

D.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Q82.

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?

A.

(b), (c) and (d)

B.

only (d)

C.

only (a)

D.

(a) and (c)

Q83.

The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo enzyme in photorespiration leads to the formation of:

A.

1 molecule of 6-C compound

B.

1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 molecule of 2-C compound

C.

2 molecules of 3-C compound

D.

1 molecule of 3-C compound

Q84.

Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to:

A.

High reflection of light from snow

B.

Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays

C.

Freezing of fluids in the eye by low temperature

D.

Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation

Q85.

Floridean starch has structure similar to:

A.

Mannitol and algin

B.

Laminarin and cellulose

C.

Starch and cellulose

D.

Amylopectin and glycogen

Q86.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Bt cotton, (b) Adenosine deaminase deficiency, (c) RNAi, (d) PCR

Column - II: (i) Gene therapy, (ii) Cellular defence, (iii) Detection of HIV infection, (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B.

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Q87.

Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed:

A.

After zygote formation

B.

At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum

C.

Prior to ovulation

D.

At the time of copulation

Q88.

From his experiments, S.L Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask:

A.

and water vapor at

B.

and water vapor at

C.

and water vapor at

D.

and water vapor at

Q89.

Choose the correct pair from the following:

A.

Nucleases - Separate the two strands of DNA

B.

Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific positions within DNA

C.

Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules

D.

Polymerases - Break the DNA into fragments

Q90.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Placenta, (b) Zona pellucida, (c) Bulbo-urethral glands, (d) Leydig cells

Column - II: (i) Androgens, (ii) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), (iii) Layer of the ovum, (iv) Lubrication of the Penis

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

C.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D.

(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Q91.

Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?

A.

(a) and (b)

B.

(b) and (c)

C.

(d) and (c)

D.

(c) and (a)

Q92.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to transport of oxygen.

A.

High H conc. in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhemoglobin.

B.

Low pCO in alveoli favours the formation of oxyhemoglobin.

C.

Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is mainly related to partial pressure of O.

D.

Partial pressure of CO can interfere with O binding with hemoglobin.

Q93.

Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by:

A.

Boveri

B.

Morgan

C.

Mendel

D.

Sutton

Q94.

The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed:

A.

Palindromic sequence

B.

Recognition site

C.

Selectable marker

D.

Ori site

Q95.

Select the correct statement.

A.

Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and adipocytes.

B.

Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.

C.

Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.

D.

Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.

Q96.

Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

A.

Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

B.

Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.

C.

When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called "Active immunity".

D.

When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is called "Passive immunity".

Q97.

Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

A.

Golgi bodies

B.

Polysomes

C.

Endoplasmic reticulum

D.

Peroxisomes

Q98.

Match the trophic levels with their correct species examples in grassland ecosystem.

Column - I: (a) Fourth trophic level, (b) Second trophic level, (c) First trophic level, (d) Third trophic level

Column - II: (i) Crow, (ii) Vulture, (iii) Rabbit, (iv) Grass

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

B.

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Q99.

Identify the basic amino acid from the following.

A.

Lysine

B.

Valine

C.

Tyrosine

D.

Glutamic Acid

Q100.

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by:

A.

Charles Darwin

B.

Oparin

C.

Karl Ernst von Baer

D.

Alfred Wallace

Q101.

The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features: Identify the category of plant and its part:

A.

Dicotyledonous stem

B.

Dicotyledonous root

C.

Monocotyledonous stem

D.

Monocotyledonous root

Q102.

Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage (). This process occurs at the end of:

A.

S phase

B.

phase

C.

M phase

D.

phase

Q103.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents:

A.

Depolarisation of ventricles

B.

Repolarisation of ventricles

C.

Repolarisation of auricles

D.

Depolarisation of auricles

Q104.

The number of substrate level phosphorylations in one turn of citric acid cycle is:

A.

Two

B.

Three

C.

Zero

D.

One

Q105.

Strobili or cones are found in:

A.

Marchantia

B.

Equisetum

C.

Salvinia

D.

Pteris

Q106.

Presence of which of the following conditions in urine are indicative of Diabetes Mellitus?

A.

Ketonuria and Glycosuria

B.

Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia

C.

Uremia and Ketonuria

D.

Uremia and Renal Calculi

Q107.

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of:

A.

Industrial melanism

B.

Natural selection

C.

Adaptive radiation

D.

Convergent evolution

Q108.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

A.

The functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.

B.

Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.

C.

In man insulin is synthesised as a proinsulin.

D.

The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide.

Q109.

Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in:

A.

proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

B.

eustachian tube

C.

lining of intestine

D.

ducts of salivary glands

Q110.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Organ of Corti, (b) Cochlea, (c) Eustachian tube, (d) Stapes

Column - II: (i) Connects middle ear and pharynx, (ii) Coiled part of the labyrinth, (iii) Attached to the oval window, (iv) Located on the basilar membrane

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

B.

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

C.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Q111.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Eosinophils, (b) Basophils, (c) Neutrophils, (d) Lymphocytes

Column - II: (i) Immune response, (ii) Phagocytosis, (iii) Release histaminase, destructive enzymes, (iv) Release granules containing histamine

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

D.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Q112.

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

A.

ICSI and ZIFT

B.

GIFT and ICSI

C.

ZIFT and IUT

D.

GIFT and ZIFT

Q113.

The first phase of translation is:

A.

Aminoacylation of tRNA

B.

Recognition of an anti-codon

C.

Binding of mRNA to ribosome

D.

Recognition of DNA molecule

Q114.

Match the following:

Column - I: (a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity, (b) Possess peptide bonds, (c) Cell wall material in fungi, (d) Secondary metabolite

Column - II: (i) Ricin, (ii) Malonate, (iii) Chitin, (iv) Collagen

Choose the correct option from the following:

A.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

C.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Q115.

Which of the following is not an inhibitory substance governing seed dormancy?

A.

Phenolic acid

B.

Para-ascorbic acid

C.

Gibberellic acid

D.

Abscisic acid

Q116.

The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other:

A.

(c) and (d)

B.

(a) and (d)

C.

(a) only

D.

(a), (b) and (c)

Q117.

Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control of:

A.

Release of Green House gases

B.

Disposal of e-wastes

C.

Transport of Genetically modified organisms from one country to another

D.

Emission of ozone depleting substances

Q118.

Which of the following is correct about viroids?

A.

They have DNA with protein coat.

B.

They have free DNA without protein coat.

C.

They have RNA with protein coat.

D.

They have free RNA without protein coat.

Q119.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds.

B.

Adenine does not pair with thymine.

C.

Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds.

D.

Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond.

Q120.

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help of:

A.

Acetocarmine in UV radiation

B.

Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation

C.

Acetocarmine in bright blue light

D.

Ethidium bromide in UV radiation

Q121.

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system.

A.

Ileum is a highly coiled part.

B.

Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum.

C.

Ileum opens into small intestine.

D.

Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal.

Q122.

If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately:

Q123.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest, (b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva with bilateral symmetry, (c) Book lungs, (d) Bioluminescence

Column - II: (i) Asterias, (ii) Scorpion, (iii) Ctenoplana, (iv) Locusta

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C.

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

D.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Q124.

Select the correct match.

A.

Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive trait, chromosome-11

B.

Thalassaemia - X linked

C.

Haemophilia - Y linked

D.

Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant trait

Q125.

In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

A.

Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are one and same.

B.

There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.

C.

Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.

D.

Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.

Q126.

Bt cotton variety that was developed by the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:

A.

Plant nematodes

B.

Insect predators

C.

Insect pests

D.

Fungal diseases

Q127.

Select the correct events that occur during inspiration.

A.

(a), (b) and (d)

B.

only (d)

C.

(a) and (b)

D.

(c) and (d)

Q128.

Which of the following is not an attribute of a population?

A.

Mortality

B.

Species interaction

C.

Sex ratio

D.

Natality

Q129.

The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and in early morning is:

A.

Imbibition

B.

Plasmolysis

C.

Transpiration

D.

Root pressure

Q130.

Match the following with respect to meiosis:

Column - I: (a) Zygotene, (b) Pachytene, (c) Diplotene, (d) Diakinesis

Column - II: (i) Terminalization, (ii) Chiasmata, (iii) Crossing over, (iv) Synapsis

Select the correct option from the following:

A.

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

C.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Q131.

If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because:

A.

the head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of its body.

B.

the head holds a rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its body.

C.

the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen.

D.

the cockroach does not have nervous system.

Q132.

Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column - I: (a) Typhoid, (b) Pneumonia, (c) Filariasis, (d) Malaria

Column - II: (i) Wuchereria, (ii) Plasmodium, (iii) Salmonella, (iv) Haemophilus

Select the correct option:

A.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

B.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iii)

C.

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

D.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Q133.

The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase in root nodules of leguminous plants is/are:

A.

Ammonia and oxygen

B.

Ammonia and hydrogen

C.

Ammonia alone

D.

Nitrate alone

Q134.

Which of the following hormone levels will cause release of ovum (ovulation) from the graffian follicle?

A.

Low concentration of LH

Q135.

Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their structure:

A.

Cellulose, lecithin

B.

Inulin, insulin

C.

Chitin, cholesterol

D.

Glycerol, trypsin

Q136.

A charged particle having drift velocity of in an electric field of , has a mobility in of:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q137.

The mean free path for a gas, with molecular diameter and number density can be expressed as:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q138.

The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q139.

Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q140.

A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at the centre of the solenoid is:

()

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q141.

The quantities of heat required to raise the temperature of two solid copper spheres of radii and () through 1 K are in the ratio:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q142.

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 6 μF. With the introduction of a dielectric medium, the capacitance becomes 30 μF. The permittivity of the medium is:

()

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q143.

A short electric dipole has a dipole moment of . The electric potential due to the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the dipole, situated on a line making an angle of with the dipole axis is:

A.

400 V

B.

zero

C.

50 V

D.

200 V

Q144.

Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg respectively are attached to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 1 m with negligible mass.

The centre of mass of the system from the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance of:

A.

67 cm

B.

80 cm

C.

33 cm

D.

50 cm

Q145.

The Brewsters angle for an interface should be:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q146.

For which one of the following, Bohr model is not valid?

A.

Deuteron atom

B.

Singly ionised neon atom (Ne)

C.

Hydrogen atom

D.

Singly ionised helium atom (He)

Q147.

Find the torque about the origin when a force of acts on a particle whose position vector is .

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q148.

For transistor action, which of the following statements is correct?

A.

Both emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

B.

The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

C.

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same doping concentrations.

D.

Base, emitter and collector regions should have same size.

Q149.

Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity () with temperature (T) for copper? [Diagram: four graphs showing different curves]

A.option A
B.option B
C.option C
D.option D
Q150.

A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of distributed uniformly. What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q151.

A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 mm and there are 50 divisions in its circular scale.

The pitch of the screw gauge is:

A.

0.5 mm

B.

1.0 mm

C.

0.01 mm

D.

0.25 mm

Q152.

A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac voltage source. When L is removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and voltage is . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again between current and voltage. The power factor of the circuit is:

A.

1.0

B.

C.

zero

D.

0.5

Q153.

A ball is thrown vertically downward with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of a tower. It hits the ground after some time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The height of the tower is: ()

A.

320 m

B.

300 m

C.

360 m

D.

340 m

Q154.

A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it, at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

A.

30 N

B.

24 N

C.

48 N

D.

32 N

Q155.

The energy required to break one bond in DNA is . This value in eV is nearly:

A.

0.06

B.

0.006

C.

6

D.

0.6

Q156.

A wire of length L, area of cross section A is hanging from a fixed support. The length of the wire changes to when mass M is suspended from its free end. The expression for Young's modulus is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q157.

An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of V volt. If the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is , the potential difference is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q158.

Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are tied to the ends of a massless string. The string passes over a pulley which is frictionless (see figure). The acceleration of the system in terms of acceleration due to gravity () is:

img1
A.

g/5

B.

g/10

C.

g

D.

g/2

Q159.

Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled?

A.

one-fourth

B.

zero

C.

doubled

D.

four times

Q160.

Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of ?

A.

9.980 m

B.

9.9 m

C.

9.9801 m

D.

9.98 m

Q161.

A ray is incident at an angle of incidence on one surface of a small angle prism (with angle of prism A) and emerges normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , then the angle of incidence is nearly equal to:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q162.

The increase in the width of the depletion region in a p-n junction diode is due to:

A.

both forward bias and reverse bias

B.

increase in forward current

C.

forward bias only

D.

reverse bias only

Q163.

In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:

A.

536 Hz

B.

537 Hz

C.

523 Hz

D.

524 Hz

Q164.

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is: ( = speed of electromagnetic waves)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q165.

In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m, the electric potential is found to be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of electric field in this region is:

A.

1 N/C

B.

5 N/C

C.

zero

D.

0.5 N/C

Q166.

In Young's double slit experiment, if the separation between coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes:

A.

four times

B.

one-fourth

C.

double

D.

half

Q167.

For the logic circuit shown, the truth table is: [Diagram: logic circuit with NOT, AND gates]

img1
A.

[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]

B.

[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]

C.

[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]

D.

[Truth table showing output Y for inputs A,B]

Q168.

A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q169.

When a uranium isotope is bombarded with a neutron, it generates , three neutrons and:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q170.

The color code of a resistance is given below:

[Diagram: resistor color bands - Yellow, Violet, Brown, Gold]

The values of resistance and tolerance, respectively, are:

img1
A.

4.7 kΩ, 5%

B.

470 Ω, 5%

C.

470 kΩ, 5%

D.

47 kΩ, 10%

Q171.

A capillary tube of radius is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height . The mass of the water in the capillary is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius is immersed in water. The mass of water that will rise in this tube is:

A.

10.0 g

B.

20.0 g

C.

2.5 g

D.

5.0 g

Q172.

A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27°C. Its density is: ()

A.

0.1 kg/m

B.

0.02 kg/m

C.

0.5 kg/m

D.

0.2 kg/m

Q173.

The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are:

A.

semiconductors only

B.

insulators and semiconductors

C.

metals

D.

insulators only

Q174.

The average thermal energy for a mono-atomic gas is: ( is Boltzmann constant and T, absolute temperature)

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q175.

Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence having surface area 20 cm. The energy received by the surface during time span of 1 minute is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q176.

Dimensions of stress are:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q177.

Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stop cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stop cock is suddenly opened. The process is:

A.

isochoric

B.

isobaric

C.

isothermal

D.

adiabatic

Q178.

An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is subjected to a magnetising field of 1200 A m. The permeability of the material of the rod is:

()

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q179.

The phase difference between displacement and acceleration of a particle in a simple harmonic motion is:

A.

B.

zero

C.

D.

Q180.

A 40 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the current in the circuit is, nearly:

A.

2.5 A

B.

25.1 A

C.

1.7 A

D.

2.05 A

Answer Key

1. C
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. B
22. C
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. D
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. A
42. C
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. D
48. D
49. D
50. A
51. C
52. B
53. C
54. D
55. C
56. D
57. A
58. A
59. C
60. B
61. A
62. A
63. C
64. A
65. C
66. A
67. D
68. C
69. B
70. D
71. D
72. B
73. C
74. D
75. A
76. B
77. A
78. B
79. C
80. D
81. A
82. A
83. B
84. A
85. D
86. C
87. B
88.
89. C
90. A
91. D
92. A
93. B
94. D
95. C
96. A
97. A
98. C
99. A
100. C
101. A
102. D
103. A
104. A
105. B
106. A
107. D
108. A
109. A
110. A
111. C
112. D
113. A
114. C
115. C
116. A
117. D
118. D
119. C
120. D
121. A
122. B
123. D
124. A
125. D
126. C
127. A
128. B
129. D
130. D
131. A
132. D
133. B
134.
135. B
136. A
137. D
138. D
139. C
140. C
141. C
142. D
143. B
144. C
145. A
146. A
147. C
148. B
149. A
150. D
151. B
152. A
153. C
154. C
155. D
156. B
157. A
158. A
159. B
160. B
161. A
162. D
163. D
164. D
165. C
166. C
167. A
168. D
169. C
170. B
171. D
172. D
173. B
174. D
175. B
176. B
177. C
178. C
179. C
180. D
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