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JEE Main 2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper with Answer Keys

2025
JEE Main 2025 (22 Jan Shift 2) Previous Year Paper · Previous Year Question Paper
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Q1.

For a matrix , let trace denote the sum of all the diagonal elements of . Let be a matrix such that and trace. If , then the value of trace equals:

A.

56

B.

132

C.

174

D.

280

Q2.

In a group of 3 girls and 4 boys, there are two boys and . The number of ways, in which these girls and boys can stand in a queue such that all the girls stand together, all the boys stand together, but and are not adjacent to each other, is:

A.

96

B.

144

C.

120

D.

72

Q3.

Let and be the coefficients of , , and respectively in the expansion of , . If and satisfy the equations and , then equals:

A.

5

B.

3

C.

4

D.

8

Q4.

Let a line pass through two distinct points and , and be parallel to the vector . If the distance of the point from the point is , then the square of the area of is equal to:

A.

148

B.

136

C.

144

D.

140

Q5.

If and are two events such that , and and are the roots of the equation , then the value of is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q6.

If , where is the constant of integration, then equals:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q7.

The area of the region enclosed by the curves and is:

A.

B.

C.

8

D.

5

Q8.

Let , . Then the numbers of local maximum and local minimum points of , respectively, are:

A.

2 and 3

B.

2 and 2

C.

3 and 2

D.

1 and 3

Q9.

Let be a point on the parabola and be a focal chord of the parabola. If and are the foot of perpendiculars drawn from and respectively on the directrix of the parabola, then the area of the quadrilateral is equal to:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q10.

Let and be two unit vectors such that the angle between them is . If and are perpendicular to each other, then the number of values of in is:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

0

D.

3

Q11.

If , then the value of equals:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q12.

Let and . Then the number of many-one functions such that is equal to:

A.

151

B.

139

C.

163

D.

127

Q13.

Suppose that the number of terms in an A.P. is , . If the sum of all odd terms of the A.P. is 40, the sum of all even terms is 55 and the last term of the A.P. exceeds the first term by 27, then is equal to:

A.

6

B.

5

C.

8

D.

4

Q14.

The perpendicular distance of the line from the point is:

A.

6

B.

C.

D.

Q15.

If the system of linear equations , , where , has infinitely many solutions, then is equal to:

A.

16

B.

12

C.

22

D.

9

Q16.

If is the solution of the differential equation , with , then is equal to:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q17.

Let and be the distinct roots of , . If and are the minimum and the maximum values of , then equals:

A.

24

B.

25

C.

17

D.

27

Q18.

The sum of all values of satisfying and in is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q19.

Let the curve , , divide the region into two parts of areas and . Then equals:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q20.

Let , and . Let the distance between the foci of and the foci of be . If and the ratio of the eccentricities of and is , then the sum of the lengths of their latus rectums is equal to:

A.

10

B.

9

C.

8

D.

7

Q21.

If , then equals:

Q22.

Let . The number of relations on , containing and , which are reflexive and transitive but not symmetric, is:

Q23.

Let , and be the vertices of a triangle. If and be its orthocenter and centroid respectively, then is equal to:

Q24.

Let be the solution of the differential equation , such that . If , then is equal to:

Q25.

Let the distance between two parallel lines be 5 units and a point lie between the lines at a unit distance from one of them. An equilateral triangle is formed such that lies on one of the parallel lines, while lies on the other. Then is equal to:

Q26.
img1

Logic circuit with inputs , and gate , output ]

To obtain the given truth table, following logic gate should be placed at :

A.

OR Gate

B.

AND Gate

C.

NOR Gate

D.

NAND Gate

Q27.

A small rigid spherical ball of mass is dropped in a long vertical tube containing glycerine. The velocity of the ball becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is half of the density of the ball, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be (consider as acceleration due to gravity):

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q28.

The torque due to the force about the origin, acting on a particle whose position vector is , would be:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q29.

A symmetric thin biconvex lens is cut into four equal parts by two planes and as shown in figure. If the power of original lens is 4 D then the power of a part of the divided lens is

img1
A.

D

B.

8D

C.

2D

D.

4D

Q30.

[Diagram: Short dipole at origin , dipole moment along -axis, point on -axis at distance , point on -axis at distance ]

For a short dipole placed at origin , the dipole moment is along -axis, as shown in the figure. If the electric potential and electric field at are and , respectively, then the correct combination of the electric potential and electric field, respectively, at point on the -axis is given by:

img1
A.

and

B.

zero and

C.

zero and

D.

and

Q31.

A transparent film of refractive index, 2.0 is coated on a glass slab of refractive index, 1.45. What is the minimum thickness of transparent film to be coated for the maximum transmission of Green light of wavelength 550 nm? [Assume that the light is incident nearly perpendicular to the glass surface.]

A.

137.5 nm

B.

275 nm

C.

94.8 nm

D.

68.7 nm

Q32.

Given are statements for certain thermodynamic variables, (A) Internal energy, volume and mass are extensive variables. (B) Pressure , temperature and density are intensive variables. (C) Volume , temperature and density are intensive variables. (D) Mass , temperature and internal energy are extensive variables. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

(B) and (C) Only

B.

(C) and (D) Only

C.

(D) and (A) Only

D.

(A) and (B) Only

Q33.

An electron projected perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field moves in a circle. If Bohr's quantization is applicable, then the radius of the electronic orbit in the first excited state is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q34.

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In Young's double slit experiment, the fringes produced by red light are closer as compared to those produced by blue light.

Reason (R): The fringe width is directly proportional to the wavelength of light.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

Both and are true but is NOT the correct explanation of

B.

is true but is false

C.

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of

D.

is false but is true

Q35.

A rectangular metallic loop is moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free region with a constant speed. When the loop is partially inside the magnate field, the plot of magnitude of induced emf with time is given by

img1
A.

Graph (1)

B.

Graph (2)

C.

Graph (3)

D.

Graph (4)

Q36.

A ball of mass 100 g is projected with velocity at with horizontal. The decrease in kinetic energy of the ball during the motion from point of projection to highest point is:

A.

5 J

B.

15 J

C.

20 J

D.

zero

Q37.

A body of mass 100 g is moving in circular path of radius 2 m on vertical plane as shown in figure. The velocity of the body at point is . The ratio of its kinetic energies at point and is:

[Diagram: Vertical circle with points A (bottom), B, C, D (top); angle AOB = 30°, angle AOD = 90°]

img1

(Take acceleration due to gravity as )

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q38.

Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A simple pendulum is taken to a planet of mass and radius, 4 times and 2 times, respectively, than the Earth. The time period of the pendulum remains same on earth and the planet.

Reason (R): The mass of the pendulum remains unchanged at Earth and the other planet.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

is false but is true

B.

is true but is false

C.

Both and are true and is the correct explanation of

D.

Both and are true but is NOT the correct explanation of

Q39.

A series LCR circuit is connected to an alternating source of emf . The current amplitude at resonant frequency is . If the value of resistance becomes twice of its initial value then amplitude of current at resonance will be:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q40.

Which one of the following is the correct dimensional formula for the capacitance in F? , , and stand for unit of mass, length, time and charge:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q41.
img1

A tube of length is shown in the figure. The radius of cross section at the point (1) is 2 cm and at the point (2) is 1 cm, respectively. If the velocity of water entering at point (1) is , then velocity of water leaving the point (2) will be:

A.

4 m/s

B.

2 m/s

C.

6 m/s

D.

8 m/s

Q42.

A light source of wavelength illuminates a metal surface and electrons are ejected with maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength , then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of metal is 1 eV):

A.

3 eV

B.

2 eV

C.

6 eV

D.

5 eV

Q43.

The maximum percentage error in the measurment of density of a wire is [Given, mass of wire radius of wire length of wire ]:

A.

8

B.

5

C.

4

D.

7

Q44.

For a diatomic gas, if for rigid molecules and for another diatomic molecules, but also having vibrational modes. Then, which one of the following options is correct? ( and are specific heats of the gas at constant pressure and volume):

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q45.

A force is applied on a particle and it undergoes a displacement . What will be the value of , if work done on the particle is zero.

A.

0

B.

C.

2

D.

Q46.

A proton is moving undeflected in a region of crossed electric and magnetic fields at a constant speed of . When the electric field is switched off, the proton moves along a circular path of radius 2 cm. The magnitude of electric field is . The value of is _______ Take the mass of the proton .

Q47.

The net current flowing in the given circuit is_______ A.

img1
Q48.

A parallel plate capacitor of area and separation between the plates 10 cm, is charged by a DC current. Consider a hypothetical plane surface of area inside the capacitor and parallel to the plates. At an instant, the current through the circuit is 6A. At the same instant the displacement current through is ________ mA.

Q49.

A tube of length 1 m is filled completely with an ideal liquid of mass 2M, and closed at both ends. The tube is rotated uniformly in horizontal plane about one of its ends. If the force exerted by the liquid at the other end is F then angular velocity of the tube is in SI unit. The value of is __________.

Q50.

Two long parallel wires and , separated by a distance of 6 cm, carry currents of 5A and 4A, respectively, in opposite directions as shown in the figure. Magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at point P at a distance of 4 cm from wire Y is . The value of is__________ . Take permeability of free space as

img1

.

Q51.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and phosphorus present in an organic compound are detected by Lassaigne's Test.

Statement (II): The elements present in the compound are converted from covalent form into ionic form by fusing the compound with Magnesium in Lassaigne's test.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct anower from the options given below:

A.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

B.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

C.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

D.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q52.

Density of 3 M NaCl solution is . The molality of the solution is:

A.

1.79 m

B.

2.79 m

C.

2 m

D.

3 m

Q53.

The correct order of the following complexes in terms of their crystal field stabilization energies is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q54.

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Corrosion is an electrochemical phenomenon in which pure metal acts as an anode and impure metal as a cathode.

Statement (II): The rate of corrosion is more in alkaline medium than in acidic medium.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Q55.
img1

Consider the given figure and choose the correct option:

A.

Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is and reactant is more stable than product.

B.

Activation energy of forward reaction is and product is less stable than reactant.

C.

Activation energy of backward reaction is and product is more stable than reactant.

D.

Activation energy of forward reaction is and product is more stable than reactant.

Q56.
img1

The maximum number of RBr producing 2-methylbutane by above sequence of reactions is ________ -

(Consider the structural isomers only)

A.

5

B.

4

C.

3

D.

1

Q57.

The species which does not undergo disproportionation reaction is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q58.

The molar solubility(s) of zirconium phosphate with molecular formula is given by relation:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q59.

Identify the homoleptic complex(es) that is/are low spin. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

(C) only

B.

(C) and (D) only

C.

(A) and (C) only

D.

(B) and (E) only

Q60.

Match List - I with List - II.

List - I (Partial Derivatives): (A) (B) (C) (D)

List - II (Thermodynamic Quantity): (I) (II) (III) (IV)

Match List - I with List - II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

B.

(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

C.

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

D.

(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

Q61.

Identify the number of structure/s from the following which can be correlated to D-glyceraldehyde.

img1
A.

four

B.

one

C.

two

D.

three

Q62.

Given below are two statements: Statement (I): A spectral line will be observed for a transition. Statement (II): and are degenerate orbitals.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

C.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

D.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Q63.

Given below are two statements: Statement (I): An element in the extreme left of the periodic table forms acidic oxides. Statement (II): Acid is formed during the reaction between water and oxide of a reactive element present in the extreme right of the periodic table.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

B.

Both Statement I and Statement II are true

C.

Both Statement I and Statement II are false

D.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Q64.
img1

Residue (A) + HCl (dil) Compound (B). Structure of residue (A) and compound (B) formed respectively is:

img2
A.

[A: benzaldehyde, B: benzyl chloride salt]

B.

[A and B structures with different products]

C.

[A and B structures with different products]

D.

[A: chloroacetal structure, B: formic acid derivative]

Q65.

The alkane from below having two secondary hydrogens is:

A.

4-Ethyl-3,4-dimethyloctane

B.

2,2,3,3-Tetramethylpentane

C.

2,2,4,5-Tetramethylheptane

D.

2,2,4,4-Tetramethylhexane

Q66.

When sec-butylcyclohexane reacts with bromine in the presence of sunlight, the major product is:

img1
A.

[Br at exocyclic position]

B.

[Br at different exocyclic position]

C.

[Br at bridging carbon of sec-butyl group]

D.

[Br at secondary carbon of sec-butyl with methylated cyclohexane]

Q67.

The most stable carbocation from the following is:

img1
A.

[Option 1 structure]

B.

[Option 2 structure]

C.

[Option 3 structure]

D.

[Option 4 structure]

Q68.

Match the Compounds (List - I) with the appropriate Catalyst/Reagents (List - II) for their reduction into

img1

corresponding amines.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A.

(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

B.

(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

C.

(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

D.

(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Q69.

Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their dipole moment: , , and

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q70.

The maximum covalency of a non-metallic group 15 element 'E' with weakest bond is:

A.

4

B.

6

C.

3

D.

5

Q71.

The compound with molecular formula , which gives only one monobromo derivative and takes up four moles of hydrogen per mole for complete hydrogenation has ________ electrons.

Q72.

20 mL of 2 M NaOH solution is added to 400 mL of 0.5 M NaOH solution. The final concentration of the solution is _______ . (Nearest integer)

Q73.

Consider the following cases of standard enthalpy of reaction ( in ):

The magnitude of is _______ (Nearest integer).

Q74.

Niobium (Nb) and ruthenium (Ru) have "" and "" number of electrons in their respective 4d orbitals. The value of is _______.

Q75.

The complex of ion and dimethyl glyoxime contains ________ number of Hydrogen atoms.

Answer Key

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. C
21. 465
22. 3
23. 145
24. 27
25. 28
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. C
40. A
41. D
42. D
43. B
44. C
45. B
46. 2
47. 1
48. 1200
49. 1
50. 1
51. D
52. B
53. D
54. C
55. B
56. B
57. D
58. B
59. B
60. C
61. D
62. B
63. D
64. D
65. B
66. C
67. C
68. D
69. B
70. A
71. 8
72. 57
73. 95
74. 11
75. 14
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