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NEET 2018 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

Neet-2018-question-paper · 2018 · Previous Year Question Paper

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  1. Q1.Physics

    A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is

    A.

    330 m/s

    B.

    339 m/s

    C.

    300 m/s

    D.

    350 m/s

  2. Q2.Physics

    An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

    A.

    smaller

    B.

    5 times greater

    C.

    equal

    D.

    10 times greater

  3. Q3.Physics

    A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

    A.

    2π s

    B.

    π s

    C.

    1 s

    D.

    2 s

  4. Q4.Physics

    The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is

    A.

    independent of the distance between the plates.

    B.

    linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

    C.

    inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

    D.

    proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

  5. Q5.Physics

    Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

    A.

    40 Ω

    B.

    25 Ω

    C.

    500 Ω

    D.

    250 Ω

  6. Q6.Physics

    A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

    A.

    the current source

    B.

    the magnetic field

    C.

    the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

    D.

    the lattice structure of the material of the rod

  7. Q7.Physics

    An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

    A.

    0·79 W

    B.

    0·43 W

    C.

    1·13 W

    D.

    2·74 W

  8. Q8.Physics

    A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0·5 kg m⁻¹ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

    A.

    7·14 A

    B.

    5·98 A

    C.

    11·32 A

    D.

    14·76 A

  9. Q9.Physics

    A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4·7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

    A.

    Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

    B.

    Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

    C.

    Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

    D.

    Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

  10. Q10.Physics

    A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of 'n' is

    A.

    10

    B.

    11

    C.

    9

    D.

    20

  11. Q11.Physics

    A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?

    img1
    A.

    [Graph showing linear increase from origin]

    B.

    [Graph showing linear increase starting from origin, then curving upward]

    C.

    [Graph showing a curve that increases and levels off]

    D.

    [Graph showing a curve that increases rapidly from origin]

  12. Q12.Physics

    In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0·20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0·21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

    A.

    1·8 mm

    B.

    1·9 mm

    C.

    1·7 mm

    D.

    2·1 mm

  13. Q13.Physics

    An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

    A.

    small focal length and large diameter

    B.

    large focal length and small diameter

    C.

    small focal length and small diameter

    D.

    large focal length and large diameter

  14. Q14.Physics

    Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index 'μ'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?

    A.

    Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

    B.

    Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

    C.

    D.

  15. Q15.Physics

    An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity . The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along

    A.

    – z direction

    B.

    + z direction

    C.

    – x direction

    D.

    – y direction

  16. Q16.Physics

    The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is

    A.

    60°

    B.

    45°

    C.

    zero

    D.

    30°

  17. Q17.Physics

    An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

    A.

    30 cm away from the mirror

    B.

    36 cm away from the mirror

    C.

    36 cm towards the mirror

    D.

    30 cm towards the mirror

  18. Q18.Physics

    The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

    A.

    0·138 H

    B.

    138·88 H

    C.

    13·89 H

    D.

    1·389 H

  19. Q19.Physics

    For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

    A.

    20

    B.

    10

    C.

    15

    D.

    30

  20. Q20.Physics

    The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is

    A.

    1 : 1

    B.

    1 : – 1

    C.

    1 : – 2

    D.

    2 : – 1

  21. Q21.Physics

    An electron of mass m with an initial velocity (V₀ > 0) enters an electric field (E₀ = constant > 0) at t = 0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  22. Q22.Physics

    When the light of frequency 2ν₀ (where ν₀ is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v₁. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5ν₀, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v₂. The ratio of v₁ to v₂ is

    A.

    1 : 2

    B.

    1 : 4

    C.

    2 : 1

    D.

    4 : 1

  23. Q23.Physics

    In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as

    [Diagram showing logic gate circuit]

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  24. Q24.Physics

    In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vᵢ is 20 V, V_BE = 0 and V_CE = 0. The values of I_B, I_C and β are given by

    [Diagram showing transistor circuit with R_B = 500 kΩ, R_C = 4 kΩ, V_i = 20 V]

    img1
    A.

    μA, mA,

    B.

    μA, mA,

    C.

    μA, mA,

    D.

    μA, mA,

  25. Q25.Physics

    In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating

    A.

    affects only reverse resistance

    B.

    affects only forward resistance

    C.

    affects the overall V – I characteristics of p-n junction

    D.

    does not affect resistance of p-n junction

  26. Q26.Physics

    A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?

    A.

    Angular velocity

    B.

    Moment of inertia

    C.

    Angular momentum

    D.

    Rotational kinetic energy

  27. Q27.Physics

    The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are K_A, K_B and K_C, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

    [Diagram: Ellipse with major axis AC, Sun at S, point B on the ellipse such that SB ⊥ AC]

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  28. Q28.Physics

    If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?

    A.

    Raindrops will fall faster.

    B.

    Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

    C.

    'g' on the Earth will not change.

    D.

    Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

  29. Q29.Physics

    A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (K_t) as well as rotational kinetic energy (K_r) simultaneously. The ratio K_t : (K_t + K_r) for the sphere is

    A.

    7 : 10

    B.

    5 : 7

    C.

    2 : 5

    D.

    10 : 7

  30. Q30.Physics

    A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  31. Q31.Physics

    A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1·013 × 10⁵ Nm⁻²) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

    A.

    104·3 J

    B.

    208·7 J

    C.

    84·5 J

    D.

    42·2 J

  32. Q32.Physics

    Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by Δl on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?

    A.

    9 F

    B.

    6 F

    C.

    F

    D.

    4 F

  33. Q33.Physics

    The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, . If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength , the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  34. Q34.Physics

    At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?

    Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = kg, Boltzmann's constant J K

    A.

    K

    B.

    K

    C.

    K

    D.

    K

  35. Q35.Physics

    The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is [Diagram: V-T graph with points A and B marked, showing linear relationship]

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  36. Q36.Physics

    The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is

    A.

    13.2 cm

    B.

    8 cm

    C.

    16 cm

    D.

    12.5 cm

  37. Q37.Physics

    The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is

    A.

    26.8%

    B.

    20%

    C.

    12.5%

    D.

    6.25%

  38. Q38.Physics

    A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to [Diagram: body sliding down and completing a vertical circular loop]

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  39. Q39.Physics

    Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  40. Q40.Physics

    Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

    A.

    Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction.

    B.

    Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction.

    C.

    Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length.

    D.

    Frictional force opposes the relative motion.

  41. Q41.Physics

    A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

    A.

    0.5

    B.

    0.25

    C.

    0.4

    D.

    0.8

  42. Q42.Physics

    A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is [Diagram: block on inclined wedge]

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  43. Q43.Physics

    A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field . Due to the force , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

    A.

    2 m/s, 4 m/s

    B.

    1 m/s, 3 m/s

    C.

    1.5 m/s, 3 m/s

    D.

    1 m/s, 3.5 m/s

  44. Q44.Physics

    The moment of the force, at (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  45. Q45.Physics

    A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is

    A.

    0.521 cm

    B.

    0.525 cm

    C.

    0.529 cm

    D.

    0.053 cm

  46. Q46.Biology

    The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is

    A.

    In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

    B.

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.

    C.

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.

    D.

    In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.

  47. Q47.Biology

    The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from

    A.

    ectoderm and mesoderm

    B.

    endoderm and mesoderm

    C.

    ectoderm and endoderm

    D.

    mesoderm and trophoblast

  48. Q48.Biology

    The contraceptive 'SAHELI'

    A.

    blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.

    B.

    increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

    C.

    is a post-coital contraceptive.

    D.

    is an IUD.

  49. Q49.Biology

    Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

    A.

    hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

    B.

    hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

    C.

    hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

    D.

    hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

  50. Q50.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I Column II

    a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining

    b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase

    c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase

    A.

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i

    B.

    a-i, b-iii, c-ii

    C.

    a-iii, b-i, c-ii

    D.

    a-ii, b-iii, c-i

  51. Q51.Biology

    All of the following are part of an operon except

    A.

    an operator

    B.

    structural genes

    C.

    a promoter

    D.

    an enhancer

  52. Q52.Biology

    A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by

    A.

    Only daughters

    B.

    Only sons

    C.

    Both sons and daughters

    D.

    Only grandchildren

  53. Q53.Biology

    According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is

    A.

    Multiple step mutations

    B.

    Saltation

    C.

    Minor mutations

    D.

    Phenotypic variations

  54. Q54.Biology

    AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

    A.

    AGGUAUCGCAU

    B.

    UGGTUTCGCAT

    C.

    UCCAUAGCGUA

    D.

    ACCUAUGCGAU

  55. Q55.Biology

    Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:

    A.

    Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

    B.

    Heart of bat, man and cheetah

    C.

    Eye of octopus, bat and man

    D.

    Brain of bat, man and cheetah

  56. Q56.Biology

    Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of

    A.

    Vitamin D

    B.

    Vitamin A

    C.

    Vitamin E

    D.

    Vitamin B12

  57. Q57.Biology

    Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

    A.

    Psoriasis

    B.

    Rheumatoid arthritis

    C.

    Vitiligo

    D.

    Alzheimer's disease

  58. Q58.Biology

    The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of

    A.

    Homology

    B.

    Analogy

    C.

    Adaptive radiation

    D.

    Convergent evolution

  59. Q59.Biology

    Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?

    a. Dominance

    b. Co-dominance

    c. Multiple allele

    d. Incomplete dominance

    e. Polygenic inheritance

    A.

    b, c and e

    B.

    a, b and c

    C.

    a, c and e

    D.

    b, d and e

  60. Q60.Biology

    In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

    A.

    Elephantiasis

    B.

    Ascariasis

    C.

    Amoebiasis

    D.

    Ringworm disease

  61. Q61.Biology

    All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ conservation' except

    A.

    Wildlife safari parks

    B.

    Sacred groves

    C.

    Seed banks

    D.

    Botanical gardens

  62. Q62.Biology

    Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ''Smack''?

    A.

    Flowers

    B.

    Latex

    C.

    Leaves

    D.

    Roots

  63. Q63.Biology

    In a growing population of a country,

    A.

    pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.

    B.

    reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.

    C.

    pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.

    D.

    reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.

  64. Q64.Biology

    Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?

    A.

    Commensalism

    B.

    Mutualism

    C.

    Amensalism

    D.

    Parasitism

  65. Q65.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I Column II

    a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation

    b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation

    c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment

    d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal

    A.

    a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

    B.

    a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

    C.

    a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

    D.

    a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

  66. Q66.Biology

    Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?

    A.

    Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface

    B.

    Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface

    C.

    Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

    D.

    Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles

  67. Q67.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I Column II

    a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle

    b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery

    c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

    A.

    a-iii, b-i, c-ii

    B.

    a-i, b-iii, c-ii

    C.

    a-ii, b-i, c-iii

    D.

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii

  68. Q68.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I Column II

    a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL

    b. Inspiratory Reserve volume ii. 1100 – 1200 mL

    c. Expiratory Reserve volume iii. 500 – 550 mL

    d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL

    A.

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

    B.

    a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

    C.

    a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

    D.

    a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii

  69. Q69.Biology

    Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

    A.

    Epinephrine

    B.

    Ecdysone

    C.

    Estriol

    D.

    Estradiol

  70. Q70.Biology

    Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

    A.

    Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes.

    B.

    Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement.

    C.

    Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres.

    D.

    Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst.

  71. Q71.Biology

    The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

    A.

    ligaments attached to the ciliary body

    B.

    ligaments attached to the iris

    C.

    smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

    D.

    smooth muscles attached to the iris

  72. Q72.Biology

    Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

    A.

    Aldosterone and Prolactin

    B.

    Progesterone and Aldosterone

    C.

    Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

    D.

    Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

  73. Q73.Biology

    Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

    A.

    Chief cells

    B.

    Mucous cells

    C.

    Parietal cells

    D.

    Goblet cells

  74. Q74.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I Column II

    a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance

    b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting

    c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism

    A.

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i

    B.

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii

    C.

    a-ii, b-iii, c-i

    D.

    a-i, b-iii, c-ii

  75. Q75.Biology

    Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

    A.

    Anthracis

    B.

    Silicosis

    C.

    Emphysema

    D.

    Botulism

  76. Q76.Biology

    Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

    A.

    binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.

    B.

    activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.

    C.

    prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.

    D.

    detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

  77. Q77.Biology

    Select the incorrect match:

    A.

    Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene bivalents

    B.

    Allosomes – Sex chromosomes

    C.

    Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes of amphibians

    D.

    Submetacentric chromosomes – L-shaped chromosomes

  78. Q78.Biology

    Nissl bodies are mainly composed of

    A.

    Proteins and lipids

    B.

    DNA and RNA

    C.

    Free ribosomes and RER

    D.

    Nucleic acids and SER

  79. Q79.Biology

    Which of these statements is incorrect?

    A.

    Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix.

    B.

    Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.

    C.

    Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.

    D.

    Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.

  80. Q80.Biology

    Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

    A.

    Protein folding

    B.

    Protein glycosylation

    C.

    Phospholipid synthesis

    D.

    Cleavage of signal peptide

  81. Q81.Biology

    Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as

    A.

    Polysome

    B.

    Polyhedral bodies

    C.

    Nucleosome

    D.

    Plastidome

  82. Q82.Biology

    Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

    A.

    Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont

    B.

    Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

    C.

    Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

    D.

    Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

  83. Q83.Biology

    Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.

    A.

    Amphibia

    B.

    Reptilia

    C.

    Osteichthyes

    D.

    Aves

  84. Q84.Biology

    Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

    A.

    Macropus

    B.

    Chelone

    C.

    Psittacula

    D.

    Camelus

  85. Q85.Biology

    Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

    A.

    Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

    B.

    Presence of caudal styles

    C.

    Presence of anal cerci

    D.

    Forewings with darker tegmina

  86. Q86.Biology

    Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

    A.

    Dinoflagellates

    B.

    Diatoms

    C.

    Euglenoids

    D.

    Cyanobacteria

  87. Q87.Biology

    Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

    A.

    using flagella for locomotion

    B.

    having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

    C.

    having two types of nuclei

    D.

    using pseudopodia for capturing prey

  88. Q88.Biology

    Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

    A.

    Earthworm

    B.

    Tunicate

    C.

    Starfish

    D.

    Moth

  89. Q89.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I (Function) – Column II (Part of Excretory System)

    a. Ultrafiltration – i. Henle's loop

    b. Concentration of urine – ii. Ureter

    c. Transport of urine – iii. Urinary bladder

    d. Storage of urine – iv. Malpighian corpuscle

    – v. Proximal convoluted tubule

    A.

    a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii

    B.

    a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

    C.

    a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

    D.

    a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

  90. Q90.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I – Column II

    a. Glycosuria – i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints

    b. Gout – ii. Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney

    c. Renal calculi – iii. Inflammation in glomeruli

    d. Glomerular nephritis – iv. Presence of glucose in urine

    A.

    a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

    B.

    a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

    C.

    a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

    D.

    a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

  91. Q91.Biology

    What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?

    A.

    It functions as an enzyme.

    B.

    It functions as an electron carrier.

    C.

    It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

    D.

    It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

  92. Q92.Biology

    Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?

    A.

    Hydrilla

    B.

    Yucca

    C.

    Viola

    D.

    Banana

  93. Q93.Biology

    Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

    A.

    Green sulphur bacteria

    B.

    Nostoc

    C.

    Chara

    D.

    Cycas

  94. Q94.Biology

    In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants?

    A.

    Ferric

    B.

    Ferrous

    C.

    Both ferric and ferrous

    D.

    Free element

  95. Q95.Biology

    Double fertilization is

    A.

    Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

    B.

    Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

    C.

    Syngamy and triple fusion

    D.

    Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

  96. Q96.Biology

    Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

    A.

    Magnesium

    B.

    Sodium

    C.

    Calcium

    D.

    Potassium

  97. Q97.Biology

    Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of

    A.

    −120°C

    B.

    −80°C

    C.

    −160°C

    D.

    −196°C

  98. Q98.Biology

    Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

    A.

    Saccharomyces

    B.

    Mycobacterium

    C.

    Oscillatoria

    D.

    Nostoc

  99. Q99.Biology

    The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

    A.

    hydroxyl and methyl

    B.

    carbonyl and methyl

    C.

    carbonyl and hydroxyl

    D.

    carbonyl and phosphate

  100. Q100.Biology

    Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?

    A.

    ATP

    B.

    NADH

    C.

    Oxygen

    D.

    NADPH

  101. Q101.Biology

    Stomatal movement is not affected by

    A.

    Temperature

    B.

    Light

    C.

    CO₂ concentration

    D.

    O₂ concentration

  102. Q102.Biology

    The Golgi complex participates in

    A.

    Fatty acid breakdown

    B.

    Formation of secretory vesicles

    C.

    Activation of amino acid

    D.

    Respiration in bacteria

  103. Q103.Biology

    Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

    A.

    Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

    B.

    It is a membrane-bound structure.

    C.

    It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

    D.

    It takes part in spindle formation.

  104. Q104.Biology

    Stomata in grass leaf are

    A.

    Dumb-bell shaped

    B.

    Kidney shaped

    C.

    Barrel shaped

    D.

    Rectangular

  105. Q105.Biology

    The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

    A.

    Pachytene

    B.

    Diplotene

    C.

    Zygotene

    D.

    Diakinesis

  106. Q106.Biology

    Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?

    A.

    Retrovirus

    B.

    Ti plasmid

    C.

    pBR 322

    D.

    λ phage

  107. Q107.Biology

    Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

    A.

    Bio-infringement

    B.

    Biopiracy

    C.

    Bioexploitation

    D.

    Biodegradation

  108. Q108.Biology

    In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

    A.

    Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

    B.

    Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

    C.

    Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

    D.

    Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

  109. Q109.Biology

    The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

    A.

    Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

    B.

    Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

    C.

    Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

    D.

    Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

  110. Q110.Biology

    Select the correct match:

    A.

    Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

    B.

    F₂ × Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

    C.

    G. Mendel – Transformation

    D.

    T.H. Morgan – Transduction

  111. Q111.Biology

    A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

    A.

    Co-667

    B.

    Sharbati Sonora

    C.

    Basmati

    D.

    Lerma Rojo

  112. Q112.Biology

    Select the correct match:

    A.

    Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

    B.

    Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV

    C.

    Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

    D.

    Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

  113. Q113.Biology

    Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?

    A.

    Pollenkitt

    B.

    Cellulosic intine

    C.

    Sporopollenin

    D.

    Oil content

  114. Q114.Biology

    The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

    A.

    Fungus

    B.

    Bacterium

    C.

    Virus

    D.

    Plant

  115. Q115.Biology

    Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

    A.

    Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

    B.

    ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

    C.

    T.H. Morgan : Linkage

    D.

    XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

  116. Q116.Biology

    Offsets are produced by

    A.

    Meiotic divisions

    B.

    Mitotic divisions

    C.

    Parthenogenesis

    D.

    Parthenocarpy

  117. Q117.Biology

    Select the correct statement:

    A.

    Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage".

    B.

    Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

    C.

    Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

    D.

    Spliceosomes take part in translation.

  118. Q118.Biology

    Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?

    A.

    Bamboo species

    B.

    Jackfruit

    C.

    Papaya

    D.

    Mango

  119. Q119.Biology

    Niche is

    A.

    all the biological factors in the organism's environment

    B.

    the physical space where an organism lives

    C.

    the functional role played by the organism where it lives

    D.

    the range of temperature that the organism needs to live

  120. Q120.Biology

    In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen?

    A.

    Carbon

    B.

    Cl

    C.

    Oxygen

    D.

    Fe

  121. Q121.Biology

    What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

    Secondary consumer : 120 g

    Primary consumer : 60 g

    Primary producer : 10 g

    A.

    Inverted pyramid of biomass

    B.

    Pyramid of energy

    C.

    Upright pyramid of biomass

    D.

    Upright pyramid of numbers

  122. Q122.Biology

    Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

    A.

    CO

    B.

    CO₂

    C.

    O₃

    D.

    SO₂

  123. Q123.Biology

    World Ozone Day is celebrated on

    A.

    5th June

    B.

    21st April

    C.

    22nd April

    D.

    16th September

  124. Q124.Biology

    Natality refers to

    A.

    Death rate

    B.

    Birth rate

    C.

    Number of individuals entering a habitat

    D.

    Number of individuals leaving the habitat

  125. Q125.Biology

    Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:

    Column I – Column II

    a. Herbarium – i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.

    b. Key – ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.

    c. Museum – iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.

    d. Catalogue – iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.

    A.

    a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

    B.

    a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

    C.

    a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

    D.

    a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

  126. Q126.Biology

    Which one is wrongly matched?

    A.

    Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

    B.

    Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

    C.

    Unicellular organism – Chlorella

    D.

    Gemma cups – Marchantia

  127. Q127.Biology

    After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

    A.

    Neurospora

    B.

    Alternaria

    C.

    Saccharomyces

    D.

    Agaricus

  128. Q128.Biology

    Winged pollen grains are present in

    A.

    Mustard

    B.

    Cycas

    C.

    Pinus

    D.

    Mango

  129. Q129.Biology

    Pneumatophores occur in

    A.

    Halophytes

    B.

    Free-floating hydrophytes

    C.

    Submerged hydrophytes

    D.

    Carnivorous plants

  130. Q130.Biology

    Plants having little or no secondary growth are

    A.

    Grasses

    B.

    Deciduous angiosperms

    C.

    Cycads

    D.

    Conifers

  131. Q131.Biology

    Casparian strips occur in

    A.

    Epidermis

    B.

    Pericycle

    C.

    Endodermis

    D.

    Cortex

  132. Q132.Biology

    Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

    A.

    Apical meristems

    B.

    Vascular cambium

    C.

    Axillary meristems

    D.

    Phellogen

  133. Q133.Biology

    Select the wrong statement:

    A.

    Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

    B.

    Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

    C.

    Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

    D.

    Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

  134. Q134.Biology

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    A.

    Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

    B.

    Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.

    C.

    Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

    D.

    Horsetails are gymnosperms.

  135. Q135.Biology

    Sweet potato is a modified

    A.

    Stem

    B.

    Adventitious root

    C.

    Rhizome

    D.

    Tap root

  136. Q136.Chemistry

    The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is

    A.

    HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

    B.

    HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂

    C.

    NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃

    D.

    HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂

  137. Q137.Chemistry

    The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is

    A.

    B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

    B.

    B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

    C.

    B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

    D.

    B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

  138. Q138.Chemistry

    Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

    A.

    Fe

    B.

    Zn

    C.

    Cu

    D.

    Mg

  139. Q139.Chemistry

    Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆³⁻ ion?

    A.

    Ga

    B.

    Al

    C.

    In

    D.

    B

  140. Q140.Chemistry

    Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

    A.

    All form monobasic oxyacids.

    B.

    All are oxidizing agents.

    C.

    Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.

    D.

    All but fluorine show positive oxidation states.

  141. Q141.Chemistry

    In the structure of ClF₃, the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is

    A.

    one

    B.

    two

    C.

    three

    D.

    four

  142. Q142.Chemistry

    The difference between amylose and amylopectin is

    A.

    Amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 α-linkage

    B.

    Amylose have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage

    C.

    Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

    D.

    Amylopectin have 1→4 α-linkage and 1→6 β-linkage

  143. Q143.Chemistry

    Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

    A.

    They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

    B.

    They are formed from bi- and tri-functional monomers.

    C.

    They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains.

    D.

    Examples are bakelite and melamine.

  144. Q144.Chemistry

    A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

    A.

    1.4

    B.

    3.0

    C.

    4.4

    D.

    2.8

  145. Q145.Chemistry

    Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

    A.

    MgO

    B.

    BeO

    C.

    CaO

    D.

    BaO

  146. Q146.Chemistry

    Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because

    A.

    In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position.

    B.

    In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive.

    C.

    In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion.

    D.

    In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to m-position.

  147. Q147.Chemistry

    The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

    A.

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₆, C₂H₅Cl

    B.

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa

    C.

    C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

    D.

    C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₆, C₂H₅OH

  148. Q148.Chemistry

    Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is

    A.

    CH ≡ CH

    B.

    CH₂ = CH₂

    C.

    CH₄

    D.

    CH₃– CH₃

  149. Q149.Chemistry

    The compound C₇H₈ undergoes the following reactions: [Diagram showing: C₇H₈ with 3Cl₂/Δ gives A, then Br₂/Fe gives B, then Zn/HCl gives C]. The product 'C' is

    A.

    m-bromotoluene

    B.

    o-bromotoluene

    C.

    p-bromotoluene

    D.

    3

  150. Q150.Chemistry

    Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  151. Q151.Chemistry

    Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation , , , from left to right atoms?

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  152. Q152.Chemistry

    Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?

    img1
    A.

    [Diagram showing NO₂ group attached to benzene ring with carbocation and Y group]

    B.

    [Diagram showing NO₂ group attached to benzene ring with carbocation at different position and Y group]

    C.

    [Diagram showing NO₂ group attached to benzene ring with carbocation and Y group]

    D.

    [Diagram showing NO₂ group attached to benzene ring with carbocation and Y group]

  153. Q153.Chemistry

    Which of the following is correct with respect to the effect of the substituents? ()

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  154. Q154.Chemistry

    In the reaction

    img1

    the electrophile involved is

    A.

    dichloromethyl cation ()

    B.

    formyl cation ()

    C.

    dichlorocarbene ()

    D.

    dichloromethyl anion ()

  155. Q155.Chemistry

    Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their

    A.

    formation of intramolecular H-bonding

    B.

    formation of carboxylate ion

    C.

    formation of intermolecular H-bonding

    D.

    more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

  156. Q156.Chemistry

    Compound A, , is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

    A and Y are respectively

    A.

    and

    B.

    and

    C.

    and

    D.

    and

  157. Q157.Chemistry

    Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions:

    A.

    P = with benzene ring; Q = on benzene; R =

    B.

    P = with benzene ring; Q = on benzene; R = on benzene

    C.

    P = on benzene; Q = on benzene; R =

    D.

    P = on benzene; Q = on benzene; R =

  158. Q158.Chemistry

    Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

    A.

    Aniline

    B.

    Acetanilide

    C.

    Glycine

    D.

    Benzoic acid

  159. Q159.Chemistry

    For the redox reaction

    the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are

    A.

    16, 5, 2

    B.

    2, 5, 16

    C.

    5, 16, 2

    D.

    2, 16, 5

  160. Q160.Chemistry

    Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction,

    A.

    Low temperature and high pressure

    B.

    Low temperature and low pressure

    C.

    High temperature and low pressure

    D.

    High temperature and high pressure

  161. Q161.Chemistry

    When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction

    A.

    is halved

    B.

    is doubled

    C.

    remains unchanged

    D.

    is tripled

  162. Q162.Chemistry

    The correction factor '' to the ideal gas equation corresponds to

    A.

    density of the gas molecules

    B.

    volume of the gas molecules

    C.

    forces of attraction between the gas molecules

    D.

    electric field present between the gas molecules

  163. Q163.Chemistry

    The bond dissociation energies of X₂, Y₂ and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is – 200 kJ mol⁻¹. The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be

    A.

    200 kJ mol⁻¹

    B.

    100 kJ mol⁻¹

    C.

    400 kJ mol⁻¹

    D.

    800 kJ mol⁻¹

  164. Q164.Chemistry

    Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is , the simplest formula for this compound is

    A.

    Mg₂X₃

    B.

    MgX₂

    C.

    Mg₃X₂

    D.

    Mg₂X

  165. Q165.Chemistry

    Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  166. Q166.Chemistry

    Consider the following species: CN⁺, CN⁻, NO and CN

    Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

    A.

    NO

    B.

    CN⁻

    C.

    CN

    D.

    CN⁺

  167. Q167.Chemistry

    Which one is a wrong statement?

    A.

    Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero.

    B.

    An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers.

    C.

    The value of m for is zero.

    D.

    The electronic configuration of N atom is

    opt D
  168. Q168.Chemistry

    The correct difference between first- and second-order reactions is that

    A.

    the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations

    B.

    the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]₀; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]₀

    C.

    the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations

    D.

    a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed

  169. Q169.Chemistry

    In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

    A.

    18 mL of water

    B.

    0·18 g of water

    C.

    10⁻³ mol of water

    D.

    0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

  170. Q170.Chemistry

    Among CaH₂, BeH₂, BaH₂, the order of ionic character is

    A.

    BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

    B.

    CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂

    C.

    BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

    D.

    BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂

  171. Q171.Chemistry

    Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below:

    [Diagram: Shows redox potential diagram with species and E° values]

    Then the species undergoing disproportionation is

    img1
    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  172. Q172.Chemistry

    The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be

    (Given molar mass of BaSO₄ = 233 g mol⁻¹)

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  173. Q173.Chemistry

    Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations:

    a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH

    b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH

    c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH

    d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH

    pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

    A.

    b

    B.

    a

    C.

    c

    D.

    d

  174. Q174.Chemistry

    On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

    A.

    The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

    B.

    Size of the ion alone

    C.

    The sign of charge on the ion alone

    D.

    Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

  175. Q175.Chemistry

    Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3·59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

    A.

    NH₃

    B.

    H₂

    C.

    CO₂

    D.

    O₂

  176. Q176.Chemistry

    Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is

    A.

    tetranuclear

    B.

    mononuclear

    C.

    dinuclear

    D.

    trinuclear

  177. Q177.Chemistry

    The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is

    A.

    Geometrical isomerism

    B.

    Coordination isomerism

    C.

    Linkage isomerism

    D.

    Ionization isomerism

  178. Q178.Chemistry

    Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

    A.

    B.

    C.

    D.

  179. Q179.Chemistry

    The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are

    A.

    square planar geometry and diamagnetic

    B.

    tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

    C.

    tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

    D.

    square planar geometry and paramagnetic

  180. Q180.Chemistry

    Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code:

    Column I: Co³⁺, Cr³⁺, Fe³⁺, Ni²⁺

    Column II: (i) B.M., (ii) B.M., (iii) B.M., (iv) B.M., (v) B.M.

    A.

    iv, v, ii, i

    B.

    i, ii, iii, iv

    C.

    iii, v, i, ii

    D.

    iv, i, ii, iii

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