Zoology in NEET is memory heavy but not memory only, because the diagram based and assertion reason questions need understanding. This set runs through human physiology, animal kingdom and classification, structural organisation, genetics and evolution, biotechnology, and ecology. Explanations point to the NCERT line the question came from, so revision stays anchored to the source text.
Which biotechnology application is primarily used to produce human insulin on a commercial scale?
Answer: B
Recombinant insulin is produced by introducing the human insulin gene into bacteria (usually E. coli), which then produce insulin as a recombinant protein on a large industrial scale.
Q.522Easy
What is the primary role of restriction endonucleases in genetic engineering?
Answer: B
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that recognize and cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences, producing sticky or blunt ends essential for creating recombinant DNA.
Q.523Medium
In monoclonal antibody production using hybridoma technology, what is the advantage of fusing B cells with myeloma cells?
Answer: A
Hybridomas combine the antibody-producing capability of B cells with the immortality of myeloma cancer cells, producing monoclonal antibodies of high specificity indefinitely.
Q.524Medium
Which of the following applications of biotechnology can help in detecting antibiotic-resistant bacteria in clinical samples?
Answer: A
DNA microarrays can detect antibiotic resistance genes rapidly by analyzing the genetic profile of bacteria, enabling faster identification compared to traditional culture methods.
Q.525Medium
What is the principle behind the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) that allows exponential amplification of specific DNA sequences?
Answer: A
PCR works through repeated cycles of three temperatures: denaturation (95°C), annealing (50-65°C), and extension (72°C), with Taq polymerase extending primers exponentially.
Q.526Easy
In the development of Bt crops (Bacillus thuringiensis), what is the inserted gene designed to do?
Answer: B
Bt crops contain the Cry gene from Bacillus thuringiensis, which produces a crystalline protein toxic to specific lepidopteran (butterfly and moth) larvae, providing pest resistance.
Q.527Medium
What is the primary concern with the application of synthetic biology in creating new organisms?
Answer: B
Synthetic biology raises significant biosafety and biosecurity concerns regarding uncontrolled release of synthetic organisms, potential ecological disruption, and dual-use implications.
Q.528Medium
Which modern sequencing technology allows for real-time monitoring of DNA synthesis, reducing sequencing time and cost?
Answer: C
Nanopore sequencing allows real-time DNA reading as strands pass through nanopores, enabling rapid and cost-effective long-read sequencing without amplification.
Q.529Hard
In gene editing using base editors, what advantage do they offer over traditional CRISPR-Cas9?
Answer: A
Base editors (BEs) convert one DNA base to another without creating double-strand breaks, reducing off-target effects and cellular damage compared to standard CRISPR-Cas9.
Q.530Medium
What is the significance of the Human Genome Project in biotechnology and personalized medicine?
Answer: A
The Human Genome Project provided the complete human genetic blueprint, revolutionizing our understanding of genetic diseases and enabling personalized medicine approaches.
Q.531Medium
In vaccine development using biotechnology, what is the advantage of mRNA vaccines (like those for COVID-19) over traditional inactivated vaccines?
Answer: B
mRNA vaccines can be designed and produced rapidly, manufactured at scale, and trigger robust immune responses without requiring actual pathogenic agents.
Q.532Easy
Which of the following represents the correct order of steps in a standard PCR cycle?
Answer: A
The standard PCR cycle follows the order: denaturation (95°C to separate DNA strands), annealing (50-65°C for primer binding), and extension (72°C for synthesis by Taq polymerase).
Q.533Hard
In the context of organ transplantation, what is the potential application of xenotransplantation biotechnology?
Answer: A
Xenotransplantation involves genetically modifying animal organs (usually pig organs) to reduce immune rejection, potentially addressing the chronic shortage of human donor organs.
Q.534Medium
What is the primary application of AFLP (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism) in forensic biotechnology?
Answer: B
AFLP generates unique DNA fingerprints by analyzing polymorphic bands through selective amplification and is widely used in forensic identification and paternity testing.
Q.535Easy
In the development of Golden Rice, which essential nutrient was biofortified into the rice grain through genetic engineering?
Answer: B
Golden Rice was developed to address micronutrient deficiency by introducing genes for beta-carotene synthesis and iron accumulation, addressing vitamin A and iron deficiency.
Q.536Hard
What is the mechanism by which TALEN (Transcription Activator-Like Effector Nuclease) technology achieves site-specific gene editing?
Answer: B
TALENs are proteins from Xanthomonas bacteria that recognize specific DNA sequences with modular repeat domains and direct FokI endonuclease for precise DNA cleavage.
Q.537Medium
Which of the following is the causative agent of Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery) in humans?
Answer: B
Understanding:
We need to identify the correct pathogen responsible for causing amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) in humans.
Step 1: Identify each organism
Plasmodium vivax causes malaria, transmitted by female Anopheles mosquito.
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that lives in the large intestine and causes amoebiasis.
Giardia lamblia causes giardiasis, characterised by diarrhoea and malabsorption.
Step 2: Pathogenesis of Entamoeba histolytica
Entamoeba histolytica colonises the large intestine, produces flask-shaped ulcers in the intestinal mucosa, and causes symptoms like abdominal pain, cramps, and bloody mucous stools. It spreads via contaminated food and water (faeco-oral route).
Answer:
The causative agent of amoebiasis is Entamoeba histolytica.
Quick Tip:
Remember that the housefly (Musca domestica) acts as a mechanical carrier transmitting Entamoeba histolytica cysts from faeces to food — a common exam fact.
Q.538Medium
In the immune response, which type of immunity is provided by the secretion of antibodies by B lymphocytes against a pathogen?
Answer: C
Understanding:
We need to identify the type of immunity that involves antibody secretion by B lymphocytes.
Step 1: Classify types of adaptive immunity
Adaptive immunity has two major arms:
•Humoral immunity: mediated by B lymphocytes that differentiate into plasma cells and secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins) into blood and lymph.
•Cell-mediated immunity: mediated by T lymphocytes (cytotoxic T cells) that directly kill infected or abnormal cells without antibody involvement.
Step 2: Eliminate incorrect options
Innate non-specific immunity includes barriers like skin, mucus, and phagocytes — it does not involve B cells or antibodies.
Passive acquired immunity refers to receiving ready-made antibodies (e.g., from mother through placenta or colostrum), not the process of B cells secreting antibodies in response to a pathogen.
Step 3: Confirm correct answer
The secretion of antibodies by B lymphocytes in response to antigens constitutes humoral immunity, because antibodies circulate in body fluids (humor = fluid).
Answer:
The type of immunity involving antibody secretion by B lymphocytes is humoral immunity.
Quick Tip:
Humoral = antibody-mediated (B cells); Cell-mediated = T cell-mediated. This distinction is frequently tested in NEET.
Q.539Medium
Which of the following cancers is correctly matched with the type of tumour it represents?
Answer: C
Understanding:
We need to correctly match a cancer type with the tissue of origin and whether it is benign or malignant.
Step 1: Analyse each option
Melanoma — It is a malignant tumour of melanocytes, not benign. This makes option A incorrect.
Leukaemia — It is a cancer of blood-forming cells (bone marrow), not exclusively lymph nodes. Option B is incorrect.
Carcinoma — It is indeed a malignant tumour that arises from epithelial cells (skin, lining of organs). This is the standard classification used in oncology and NCERT.
Sarcoma — It arises from connective/muscular tissues (bone, cartilage, muscle), not blood-forming cells. Option D is incorrect.
Step 2: Confirm classification of carcinomas
Carcinomas form the largest group of cancers in humans. Examples include lung carcinoma, breast carcinoma, and colon carcinoma, all originating from epithelial cells.
Answer:
Carcinoma is correctly defined as a malignant tumour arising from epithelial cells.
Quick Tip:
Remember the classification: Carcinoma (epithelial) → Sarcoma (connective/muscle) → Leukaemia/Lymphoma (blood/lymphoid). Melanoma is always malignant — never benign.
Q.540Medium
In malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, the fever occurs every 48 hours. This periodicity is linked to which event in the parasite's life cycle?
Answer: B
Understanding:
We need to identify the specific event in the Plasmodium life cycle responsible for the periodic fever seen in malaria.
Step 1: Trace the erythrocytic cycle
After entering the liver (pre-erythrocytic stage), merozoites are released and invade red blood cells (RBCs). Inside RBCs, they feed on haemoglobin and multiply. At the end of each erythrocytic cycle, the RBCs rupture, releasing new merozoites along with toxic metabolic byproducts including haemozoin (malarial pigment) and other pyrogens.
Step 2: Link rupture to fever
The sudden release of merozoites, haemozoin, and cellular debris into the bloodstream triggers the immune system, causing a sharp rise in body temperature. In Plasmodium falciparum (malignant tertian malaria) and P. vivax (benign tertian malaria), the erythrocytic cycle is completed every 48 hours, giving a fever every 2nd day.
Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options
Sporozoite release from the mosquito initiates infection but does not cause fever.
Gametocytes form in RBCs (not liver cells) and are the sexual stage for the mosquito — not linked to fever periodicity.
Zygote formation occurs inside the mosquito's gut — irrelevant to fever in humans.
Answer:
The periodic fever in malaria is caused by the rupture of infected red blood cells, releasing merozoites and haemozoin into the bloodstream.
Quick Tip:
P. vivax and P. falciparum → 48-hour cycle (tertian fever); P. malariae → 72-hour cycle (quartan fever). This is a high-frequency NEET fact.
