UPSC IAS / IPS - MCQ Practice Questions

This question asks which fundamental ideal is absent from the explicit text of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution.

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions the ideals of justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, along with sovereignty and secularism. Among the given options, "Dignity" is notably absent from the original language of the Preamble, though it has become an important constitutional principle through judicial interpretation and amendments.

Sovereignty, Secularism, and Liberty are all directly stated in the Preamble ("We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Democratic Republic"), whereas Dignity, though a core constitutional value, is not explicitly written in the Preamble's text itself.

The correct answer is (C) Dignity, as it is not explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

This question tests knowledge of the fundamental characteristics and nature of Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are non-enforceable constitutional provisions that guide the state in framing laws and policies to achieve social and economic justice. Let me analyze each statement:

Statement 1: DPSP are enforceable through courts — This is INCORRECT. DPSP are explicitly non-justiciable, meaning courts cannot enforce them directly. Article 37 of the Constitution clearly states that no court can order their enforcement. However, courts can use them as interpretive aids while deciding cases involving Fundamental Rights.

Statement 2: DPSP provide guidance for legislation and administration — This is CORRECT. The primary purpose of DPSP is to guide the state in making laws and implementing policies. Article 37 mandates that while DPSP are not enforceable by courts, they are fundamental in governance and must inform legislative and administrative decisions.

Statement 3: DPSP take precedence over Fundamental Rights — This is INCORRECT. Fundamental Rights (Part III) have primacy over DPSP (Part IV). However, DPSP can be used to reasonably restrict Fundamental Rights under Article 19(6), but DPSP themselves cannot override or supersede Fundamental Rights.

**Statement 4: DPSP aim to establish

This question asks about the constitutional authority responsible for accepting a Minister's resignation in India.

The power to approve the resignation of a Minister lies with the President of India because Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President as per Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution. While a Minister typically submits their resignation to the Prime Minister, the formal acceptance and approval of that resignation is a constitutional power vested with the President. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has no role in this matter, the Prime Minister can only recommend but cannot formally accept resignations, and the Chief Justice of India has no constitutional authority over executive appointments or resignations.

The correct answer is (B) President of India, as the President is the constitutional authority empowered to approve ministerial resignations under Article 75(1) of the Indian Constitution.

# Solution: 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution

This question asks which statement about the 42nd Amendment (1976) is incorrect by identifying the false claim among four options.

The 42nd Amendment, also known as the "Mini Constitution," was passed during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and made significant changes to the Constitution.

Option (A) - Adding 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble: CORRECT

The 42nd Amendment inserted the words "Socialist" and "Secular" into the Preamble of the Constitution, along with changing "Union of India" to "Sovereign Democratic Republic."

Option (C) - Limiting judiciary's power to review laws: CORRECT

The 42nd Amendment curtailed the power of courts to review laws by adding Article 31C, which prevented judicial review of laws related to property and socio-economic rights.

Option (D) - Removing Right to Property from Fundamental Rights: CORRECT

The 42nd Amendment removed the Right to Property from Part III (Fundamental Rights) and demoted it to Part XII-B as a Constitutional Right, making it non-justiciable.

Option (B) - Reducing voting age from 21 to 18 years: INCORRECT

The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18

This question examines the constitutional significance of Article 32 as a fundamental right that enables the enforcement of all other fundamental rights.

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution is itself a Fundamental Right because it creates the mechanism through which citizens can directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce their other Fundamental Rights. This is significant because without this right, other fundamental rights would lack a direct and accessible remedy mechanism. The Supreme Court acts as the guardian of the Constitution and can issue writs (habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari, and quo warranto) to protect citizens when their fundamental rights are violated. By making Article 32 itself a fundamental right, the Constitution ensures that the enforcement machinery for fundamental rights cannot be suspended or removed, even during emergencies, making it the foundation upon which all other fundamental rights rest.

The correct answer is (C) because Article 32 provides the direct remedy mechanism—through Supreme Court intervention—that makes all other Fundamental Rights practically enforceable and meaningful.

This question tests knowledge of the mandatory functions assigned to Gram Panchayats under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act established a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj and defined the powers and functions of Gram Panchayats through the 11th Schedule of the Constitution. The mandatory functions listed in the 11th Schedule focus on local development, social welfare, and community services.

Options (A), (B), and (C) are all explicitly mentioned as mandatory functions: collection of agricultural statistics and census data supports rural planning, maintenance of community assets ensures public infrastructure upkeep, and organization of adult education promotes literacy and skill development at the grassroots level.

Option (D), collection of income tax from citizens, is NOT a mandatory function of Gram Panchayats. Income tax collection is a function of the Union Government's revenue department, not local governance bodies. Gram Panchayats operate under the fiscal framework defined by state governments and deal with local taxes and levies, not national income tax collection.

The correct answer is (D) Collection of income tax from citizens, as this is exclusively a central government function and not a mandatory responsibility of Gram Panchayats under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act.

This question concerns the constitutional procedure when a bill is rejected by the President and subsequently re-passed by Parliament with a special majority.

Step 1: Understanding Presidential Veto Power

When the President returns a bill without assent along with a message, this is called a "veto." The President is exercising constitutional discretion under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution.

Step 2: Re-passage with $\frac{2}{3}$ Majority Requirement

According to Article 111, if both houses of Parliament re-pass the bill with a majority of not less than $\frac{2}{3}$ of members present and voting, the bill must be presented to the President again.

Step 3: Automatic Assent After $\frac{2}{3}$ Re-passage

When a bill is re-passed with the constitutionally mandated $\frac{2}{3}$ majority, the President has no option but to give assent. The bill becomes law automatically without requiring Presidential consent—the $\frac{2}{3}$ majority effectively overrides the Presidential veto.

The bill becomes law without Presidential assent because re-passage by both houses with a $\frac{2}{3}$ majority is a constitutional override of the Presidential veto, making assent mandatory and automatic.

This question tests knowledge of India's constitutional division of legislative powers between the Union and States through the three lists in the Seventh Schedule.

Criminal law and procedure is correctly placed in the Concurrent List because both Union and State governments need authority to maintain law and order within their respective jurisdictions.

The Indian Constitution divides subjects into three lists:

Analyzing the options: Defense (A), Currency and coinage (C), and Foreign affairs (D) are all in the Union List—exclusively Union matters. Criminal law and procedure (B) is the only subject in the Concurrent List among these options.

The answer is (B) Criminal law and procedure, as it appears in the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule, allowing both Union and States legislative authority.

This question asks about the constitutional recognition of local government bodies under India's 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, was a landmark legislation that provided constitutional recognition to Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities) for the first time in independent India's history. Prior to this amendment, while rural local bodies (Panchayats) had some constitutional mentions, municipalities and other urban local bodies lacked formal constitutional status despite existing in practice. This amendment added Part IXA to the Constitution, establishing a three-tier system of urban governance through Municipal Corporations (in large cities), Municipalities (in towns), and Nagar Panchayats (in smaller urban areas). District Planning Committees and Metropolitan Planning Committees were created as supporting bodies under this amendment, but they were not the primary focus—the main achievement was the constitutional recognition of municipalities themselves as the primary urban local bodies.

The correct answer is (A) Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities), as the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 provided constitutional recognition to municipalities for the first time.

This question tests knowledge of amendments made to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution since its original adoption in 1950.

The original Preamble of the Indian Constitution, adopted on January 26, 1950, described India as a "Sovereign Democratic Republic." The words "Socialist" and "Secular" were NOT part of this original Preamble. However, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment of 1976 (during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi) added both "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble. Since the question asks for a single word that was NOT in the original but was added later, and both "Socialist" and "Secular" fit this criterion, "Socialist" is listed as the correct answer in the given options, though technically "Secular" was also added at the same time. The words "Sovereign" and "Democratic" were present in the original Preamble from 1950.

The correct answer is (C) Socialist, as it was added to the Preamble through the 42nd Amendment in 1976 and was not part of the original Preamble of 1950.

Article 37 states that while DPSPs are not enforceable by any court, they are fundamental to the governance of the country and the state shall be guided by these principles in making laws.

Articles 36-51 comprise the entire DPSP chapter. DPSPs cover social and economic rights like education, health, fair wages, etc.

The 73rd Amendment (1992) did NOT change the term of Gram Panchayats.

The term was already 5 years and remains 5 years.

However, it did make 3-tier structure mandatory, reserved $\frac{1}{3}$rd seats for women, added Part IXA (Articles 243-243O), and created constitutional status for Panchayats.

The 74th Amendment similarly applies to Urban Local Bodies.

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, passed during the Emergency period, added three words to the Preamble: 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity'.

This amendment is considered one of the most controversial amendments.

The word 'secular' was inserted between 'sovereign' and 'democratic' to emphasize the state's religious neutrality.

Certiorari is used to quash an order or judgment of a lower court or administrative body.

It is issued when there is excess of jurisdiction or violation of natural justice (Article 226, 32).

Option A describes Mandamus, Option B describes Habeas Corpus, and Option D describes Quo Warranto.

Each writ has specific applicability and scope.

Article 85(2)(b) empowers the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

The President exercises this power on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Article 84 deals with qualifications for the President, Article 75 with the PM and Council of Ministers, and Article 52 with the President's existence.

All three statements are correct.

The 73rd Amendment Act (1992) introduced the Constitutional framework for Panchayati Raj.

It provides for a three-tier system in states with population above 20 lakhs (Article 243C).

It mandates regular elections every five years (Article 243E) and reserves seats for SCs and STs proportionate to their population (Article 243D).

Article 356 deals with the proclamation of President's Rule when the President is satisfied that the machinery of government in a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.

Under this article, the President can recommend the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly.

Article 357 deals with the effects of proclamation, Article 358 with suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency, and Article 359 with suspension of the enforcement of rights.

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All-India Services by a two-thirds majority resolution in the Rajya Sabha during a National Emergency or with the consent of states in normal circumstances.

This allows flexibility in creating services like IAS, IPS without constitutional amendment.

Article 245 deals with territorial extent of laws, Article 309 with service conditions, and Article 320 with the Union Public Service Commission.

Article 32 provides for writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, and Quo Warranto.

Specific Performance is an equitable remedy available under civil law but not as a constitutional writ remedy under Article 32.

Statement 1 is correct - Speaker elected by Lok Sabha members.

Statement 2 is correct - Speaker has casting vote only in case of tie.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Speaker presides over joint sessions.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Speaker can be removed by a resolution supported by majority of total membership, not just a no-confidence motion.