Practice <strong>UPSC IAS Civil Services</strong> MCQ questions covering Indian History, Polity, Geography, Economy, Environment, Science & Technology, and Current Affairs. Aligned with the latest UPSC Prelims syllabus — perfect for IAS, IPS, IFS, and other Civil Services aspirants.
Which of the following is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: D
The Preamble mentions: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic, Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. 'Federal' is not explicitly stated in the Preamble, though federalism is incorporated through Articles 1-7 and other constitutional provisions. 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
Q.2Medium
Which of the following statements regarding the composition of Parliament is correct?
Answer: B
Article 80 specifies that Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members (238 elected + 12 nominated by President).
Lok Sabha has 545 members including 2 Anglo-Indians nominated by President (not 545 including nominated members separately).
Lok Sabha members serve 5-year terms, not 6.
Rajya Sabha members are elected by state legislatures, not directly elected by universal adult suffrage.
Q.3Medium
Under Article 356 of the Constitution, the President can declare President's Rule in a state when:
Answer: B
Article 356 (Emergency Provisions) allows the President to declare President's Rule (National Emergency at state level) when satisfied that the constitutional machinery has broken down and the state cannot be governed according to the Constitution.
This typically follows dismissal of the state government.
The President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers but the constitutional ground is the failure of constitutional governance in the state.
Q.4Medium
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment introduced provisions for Panchayati Raj. Which of the following is a key feature mandated by this amendment?
Answer: B
The 73rd Amendment (1992) made Articles 243 et seq. mandatory for panchayats.
Key features include: three-tier system (village, block, district) for states with population above 20 lakh; five-year tenure; regular elections; and reservation provisions.
Women's reservation was set at 33% (not 50%).
The amendment makes these provisions constitutionally binding on all states.
Q.5Medium
Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSP?
Answer: B
Articles 12-35 establish justiciable Fundamental Rights (Part III), while Articles 36-51 provide non-justiciable DPSP (Part IV).
Landmark cases like Kesavananda Bharati (1973) established that courts can use DPSP for constitutional interpretation and as guidelines for judicial review.
The distinction is crucial: Rights are enforceable, DPSP are aspirational but legally significant for governance and judicial reasoning.
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Q.6Medium
Which Fundamental Right can be suspended during a National Emergency except in respect of Articles 20 and 21?
Answer: B
Article 19 (Right to Freedom) can be suspended during a National Emergency under Article 359.
However, Articles 20 (protection against conviction for offences) and 21 (right to life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during emergency.
This ensures protection against arbitrary arrest and punishment.
Q.7Medium
Which of the following statements regarding Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is correct?
Answer: B
Articles 36-51 contain DPSP which are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced in courts).
However, they are fundamental in governance and obligate the state to apply them while making laws and policies.
The Minerva Mills case (1980) established that DPSP cannot override Fundamental Rights, but both must be harmoniously interpreted.
Q.8Medium
The power to issue ordinances granted to the President under Article 123 is subject to which of the following limitations?
Answer: B
Article 123 allows the President to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session.
These ordinances must be laid before Parliament when it reassembles.
An ordinance ceases to operate if not approved by both houses within 6 weeks from reassembly or earlier dissolution.
The 43rd Amendment limited ordinance-making power by restricting repeated re-promulgation.
Q.9Medium
Which of the following writs can be issued to prevent an illegal appointment or to remove an office holder not entitled to hold office?
Answer: C
Quo Warranto (Latin: 'by what authority') is a writ issued to inquire into the authority by which a person claims to hold a public office.
It is used to prevent illegal appointments and to remove persons not entitled to hold office.
For example, it was used in cases questioning the validity of ministerial appointments when constitutional procedures were not followed.
Q.10Medium
The 73rd Amendment Act introduced Panchayati Raj at the grassroots level. Which of the following is NOT a feature of this amendment?
Answer: C
The 73rd Amendment (1992) created a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (village, block, district) with reservation of seats for SCs/STs, but Mukhya Mantris (State Chief Ministers) are NOT elected directly by people.
They are elected by the state legislature.
Panchayat Chairpersons/Pradhans are elected, and State Election Commissions were constituted to conduct Panchayat elections.
Q.11Medium
Which of the following objectives is NOT explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer: C
The Preamble mentions justice (social, economic, political), liberty, equality, and fraternity.
The right to property is a legal right but was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment (1978).
It is now only a constitutional right under Article 300-A, not explicitly in the Preamble.
Q.12Medium
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines 'State' for the purpose of enforcing Fundamental Rights. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of 'State'?
Answer: D
Article 12 defines State to include the Government and Parliament of India, State Governments, State Legislatures, and all local authorities.
Private companies and voluntary organizations are NOT considered part of the State, though they may be bound by constitutional principles in certain contexts (doctrine of vertical effect).
Fundamental Rights primarily bind the State, not private entities.
Q.13Medium
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Answer: B
The 61st Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years, amending Article 326 of the Constitution.
This made India one of the countries with the lowest voting age.
The 42nd Amendment was the 'Mini Constitution,' the 73rd was on Panchayats, and the 86th was on Right to Education.
Q.14Medium
Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners?
Answer: A
Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and conduct of elections in the Election Commission.
It provides that the Chief Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the President, and the President shall also appoint other Election Commissioners.
Articles 325-329 deal with other aspects of elections (qualifications, electoral rolls, etc.).
Q.15Medium
Which of the following statements regarding the 44th Amendment Act, 1978 is correct?
Answer: B
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 removed the Right to Property (Article 31) from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a constitutional right under Article 300-A.
The term 'socialist' was added by the 42nd Amendment (1976), not the 44th. DPSP was part of the original Constitution (Part IV).
The 61st Amendment (1988), not the 44th, reduced voting age to 18.
Q.16Medium
Which article of the Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) related to free legal aid?
Answer: A
Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976), specifically mandates that the State shall secure free legal aid for economically weaker citizens.
This DPSP recognizes that justice should be accessible to all, regardless of economic status.
Q.17Medium
Which of the following statements about the Council of Ministers is correct?
Answer: C
Article 75(3) establishes that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
However, option B is partially correct (6 months under Article 75(4)), but the complete collective responsibility principle is the most fundamental feature.
Option A is incorrect as Rajya Sabha members can be Ministers.
Q.18Medium
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment introduced local government in rural areas. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Panchayati Raj as per this amendment?
Answer: C
The 73rd Amendment (1992) doesn't mandate mandatory inclusion of all agricultural workers in Gram Sabha.
It established three-tier Panchayats (village, block, district), ensured one-third reservation for women (amended to include SC/ST), and fixed a five-year term.
Gram Sabha participation is voluntary, not mandatory for specific categories.
Q.19Medium
Which of the following can be grounds for removal of a High Court Judge?
Answer: A
Article 124(4) and Article 217(1) provide for removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges respectively, on grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
This requires a motion in both Houses of Parliament, investigation by a committee, and approval by 32 majority of members present and voting.
This is a rigorous impeachment process.
Q.20Medium
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution defines 'State' for the purpose of Fundamental Rights. Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of 'State' under Article 12?
Answer: D
Article 12 defines 'State' to include Government and Parliament of India, State Governments, State Legislatures, and all other authorities and bodies established by law.
However, private individuals and private organizations are NOT included in the definition of 'State', so Fundamental Rights generally do not bind them (except in cases of state action doctrine application).