Home Subjects NEET Zoology Reproductive Health

NEET Zoology
Reproductive Health

Zoology questions for NEET UG — Animal Kingdom, Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution.

17 Q 6 Topics Take Test
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Difficulty: All Easy Medium Hard 1–10 of 17
Topics in NEET Zoology
A couple with unexplained infertility (normal semen analysis, ovulation confirmed, patent tubes) is offered IVF. What is the rationale for this recommendation?
A To improve sperm motility through capacitation
B To increase the number of fertilization attempts and bypass potential sperm-egg interaction defects
C To eliminate the need for progesterone supplementation
D To prevent spontaneous miscarriage
Correct Answer:  B. To increase the number of fertilization attempts and bypass potential sperm-egg interaction defects
EXPLANATION

In unexplained infertility, IVF allows multiple sperm-egg interactions and can overcome subtle defects in gamete interaction that cannot be detected by standard testing.

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A man with cystic fibrosis presents with infertility. Which finding is characteristic in his semen analysis?
A Azoospermia with normal seminal fluid
B Oligozoospermia with reduced seminal volume
C Asthenozoospermia with abnormal sperm morphology
D Normal semen analysis but erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer:  A. Azoospermia with normal seminal fluid
EXPLANATION

Cystic fibrosis typically results in congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens (CBAVD), leading to azoospermia with normal seminal fluid parameters (obstructive azoospermia).

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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman with endometriosis and infertility is considering assisted reproductive technology. Which ART technique would be most beneficial for her?
A Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
B In vitro fertilization (IVF)
C Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D Embryo transfer without prior ovarian stimulation
Correct Answer:  B. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
EXPLANATION

IVF is the gold standard for endometriosis-related infertility as it bypasses tubal and peritoneal factors. IUI has lower success rates in endometriosis. GIFT is rarely used now.

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A couple has been trying to conceive for 2 years without success. The male partner has normal semen parameters, but the female partner has elevated FSH levels. What does this indicate?
A Polycystic ovary syndrome
B Diminished ovarian reserve
C Hyperprolactinemia
D Thyroid dysfunction
Correct Answer:  B. Diminished ovarian reserve
EXPLANATION

Elevated basal FSH (>10 IU/L on day 3) indicates reduced ovarian reserve, meaning fewer eggs remain in the ovaries, affecting fertility prognosis.

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A 35-year-old woman with three previous cesarean deliveries presents with vaginal bleeding at 32 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Placental abruption
B Placenta previa
C Placenta accreta
D Morbidly adherent placenta
Correct Answer:  C. Placenta accreta
EXPLANATION

Multiple cesarean deliveries increase the risk of abnormal placentation, including placenta accreta, where placental villi invade the myometrium, leading to hemorrhage.

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During oogenesis, at which stage does the first meiotic division complete?
A Before puberty in fetal ovaries
B At ovulation
C After fertilization when sperm penetrates egg
D During fetal development but arrested at metaphase II
Correct Answer:  B. At ovulation
EXPLANATION

Oocytes arrest in prophase I during fetal development and remain in this arrested state (dictyotene). First meiotic division completes just before ovulation, producing secondary oocyte and polar body.

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A 26-year-old male presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction and reduced sperm count. Testosterone level is 2.5 ng/mL (normal: 3-10 ng/mL). What could be the underlying cause?
A Primary hypogonadism
B Secondary hypogonadism from pituitary dysfunction
C Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D Klinefelter syndrome with normal testosterone
Correct Answer:  B. Secondary hypogonadism from pituitary dysfunction
EXPLANATION

Low testosterone with erectile dysfunction requires assessment of LH and FSH. If LH/FSH are low, it indicates secondary hypogonadism (pituitary/hypothalamic origin).

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During in vitro fertilization (IVF), what is the purpose of using GnRH agonists in the downregulation phase?
A To increase FSH levels for superovulation
B To suppress endogenous GnRH, preventing premature LH surge
C To directly stimulate ovarian follicles
D To increase progesterone production
Correct Answer:  B. To suppress endogenous GnRH, preventing premature LH surge
EXPLANATION

GnRH agonists cause initial stimulation followed by desensitization, suppressing endogenous LH and FSH to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian hyperstimulation.

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A couple has been trying to conceive for 2 years without success. The male partner has normal semen analysis. What is the next appropriate investigation for the female partner?
A Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
B Laparoscopy
C Hormone level assessment (Day 3 FSH, LH)
D Pelvic ultrasound for ovarian assessment
Correct Answer:  A. Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
EXPLANATION

HSG is the first-line radiological investigation for assessing tubal patency and uterine cavity in suspected secondary infertility after normal male factor evaluation.

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A 28-year-old female reports irregular menstrual cycles with excessive bleeding. Laboratory tests show elevated FSH and normal prolactin levels. What could be the likely diagnosis?
A Hyperprolactinemia
B Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI)
C Thyroid dysfunction
D Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Correct Answer:  B. Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI)
EXPLANATION

Elevated FSH with irregular cycles indicates diminished ovarian reserve characteristic of POI. PCOS typically shows normal or low FSH with hyperandrogenism.

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