Home Subjects NEET Zoology

NEET Zoology

Zoology questions for NEET UG — Animal Kingdom, Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution.

273 Q 6 Topics Take Test
Advertisement
Difficulty: All Easy Medium Hard 91–100 of 273
Topics in NEET Zoology
Which of the following conditions is associated with increased risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
A Previous history of preterm labor
B Maternal age less than 20 years
C Maternal obesity (BMI > 30)
D Primiparity
Correct Answer:  C. Maternal obesity (BMI > 30)
EXPLANATION

Maternal obesity, advanced age (>35 years), family history of diabetes, and previous gestational diabetes are significant risk factors for GDM.

Take Test
A 32-year-old woman presents with secondary infertility and dysmenorrhea. Imaging shows thickened endometrial tissue outside the uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Uterine fibroids
B Endometriosis
C Adenomyosis
D Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct Answer:  B. Endometriosis
EXPLANATION

Endometriosis is characterized by ectopic endometrial tissue outside the uterus, causing dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, and infertility due to inflammation and mechanical obstruction.

Take Test
During embryonic development, the notochord is primarily derived from which germ layer?
A Ectoderm
B Endoderm
C Mesoderm
D Epiblast (via primitive node)
Correct Answer:  D. Epiblast (via primitive node)
EXPLANATION

The notochord develops from cells of the primitive node (primitive pit) during gastrulation and serves as the primary organizer for embryonic development.

Take Test
A couple seeks fertility treatment after 3 years of unprotected intercourse without conception. Which investigation should be done first in the female partner?
A Laparoscopy
B Hysterosalpingography
C Ovulation assessment and basic hormonal profile
D Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer:  C. Ovulation assessment and basic hormonal profile
EXPLANATION

Initial infertility workup in females includes confirmation of ovulation (through basal body temperature, progesterone levels) and basic hormone assessment before invasive procedures.

Take Test
What is the mechanism of action of misoprostol when used for medical abortion in the first trimester?
A Inhibits progesterone receptor, detaches endometrium
B Causes uterine contractions to expel pregnancy tissue
C Induces apoptosis of trophoblastic cells
D Blocks blood supply to developing embryo
Correct Answer:  B. Causes uterine contractions to expel pregnancy tissue
EXPLANATION

Misoprostol, a prostaglandin analog, causes sustained uterine contractions that expel pregnancy tissues. It is typically used after mifepristone (progesterone antagonist) in medical abortion protocols.

Take Test
Which sexually transmitted infection is characterized by painless genital ulcers with indurated edges and a clean base?
A Gonorrhea
B Primary syphilis
C Herpes simplex virus
D Lymphogranuloma venereum
Correct Answer:  B. Primary syphilis
EXPLANATION

Primary syphilis presents with painless, indurated ulcers (chancre) with a clean base and raised borders. HSV causes painful vesicles; LGV causes small painless pustules.

Take Test
A woman using combined oral contraceptive pills reports breakthrough bleeding. Which factor is MOST likely responsible?
A Excessive estrogen dose
B Insufficient progestin for endometrial stability
C Increased endometrial proliferation from high estrogen
D Overdose of progestin causing endometrial atrophy
Correct Answer:  B. Insufficient progestin for endometrial stability
EXPLANATION

Breakthrough bleeding typically results from insufficient progestin to stabilize endometrium. Management includes switching to a pill with higher progestin content.

Take Test
What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in spontaneous miscarriages?
A Trisomy 13
B Trisomy 21
C Trisomy 16
D Monosomy X
Correct Answer:  C. Trisomy 16
EXPLANATION

Trisomy 16 is the most common chromosomal abnormality in first-trimester miscarriages (accounts for ~15% of chromosomal losses) but is incompatible with life beyond early pregnancy.

Take Test
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)?
A High LH to FSH ratio (>2:1 or 3:1)
B Low androgen levels
C Regular ovulatory cycles
D Elevated TSH levels
Correct Answer:  A. High LH to FSH ratio (>2:1 or 3:1)
EXPLANATION

PCOS typically presents with elevated LH:FSH ratio (>2:1 or 3:1), hyperandrogenism, insulin resistance, and anovulation, not regular cycles.

Take Test
Q.100 Medium Reproductive Health
A 32-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and galactorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative. Which investigation would be MOST diagnostic?
A Serum prolactin levels
B FSH and LH levels
C Thyroid function tests
D Estrogen level estimation
Correct Answer:  A. Serum prolactin levels
EXPLANATION

Galactorrhea with amenorrhea strongly suggests hyperprolactinemia. Serum prolactin >200 ng/mL indicates pituitary adenoma, while TSH should also be checked for secondary hyperprolactinemia.

Take Test
IGET
iget AI
Online · Ask anything about exams
Hi! 👋 I'm your iget AI assistant.

Ask me anything about exam prep, MCQ solutions, study tips, or strategies! 🎯
UPSC strategy SSC CGL syllabus Improve aptitude NEET Biology tips