Home Subjects NEET Zoology

NEET Zoology

Zoology questions for NEET UG — Animal Kingdom, Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution.

540 Q 6 Topics Take Test
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Difficulty: All Easy Medium Hard 151–160 of 540
Topics in NEET Zoology
Q.151 Medium Reproductive Health
A 34-year-old man has oligozoospermia with motility of 20%. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?
A Varicocele
B Recent fever from acute illness
C Smoking
D All of the above
Correct Answer:  D. All of the above
EXPLANATION

Varicocele is the most common correctable cause of male infertility. Fever temporarily affects spermatogenesis for 2-3 months. Smoking reduces sperm count and motility. All are valid etiologies of oligozoospermia.

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Q.152 Medium Reproductive Health
Which contraceptive method is absolutely contraindicated in women with current or history of breast cancer?
A Copper IUD
B Combined oral contraceptive pills
C Progestin-only injectable
D Barrier methods
Correct Answer:  B. Combined oral contraceptive pills
EXPLANATION

Combined oral contraceptives containing estrogen are contraindicated in breast cancer patients due to estrogen's proliferative effects. Copper IUD, progestin-only methods, and barrier methods are safe alternatives.

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Q.153 Medium Reproductive Health
A woman using combined oral contraceptive pills (COCs) presents with breakthrough bleeding. Which action should be taken?
A Discontinue COCs immediately
B Continue the same pills; breakthrough bleeding usually resolves
C Switch to a higher-dose estrogen formulation
D Switch to progestin-only pills
Correct Answer:  B. Continue the same pills; breakthrough bleeding usually resolves
EXPLANATION

Breakthrough bleeding is common in the first 3 months of COC use and usually resolves spontaneously. Continuation of the same regimen is recommended unless bleeding persists beyond 3 months.

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Which of the following STIs is most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A Herpes simplex virus
B Chlamydia trachomatis
C Human papillomavirus
D Cytomegalovirus
Correct Answer:  B. Chlamydia trachomatis
EXPLANATION

Chlamydia trachomatis is the leading cause of PID, accounting for 30-40% of cases. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the second most common cause.

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Q.155 Medium Reproductive Health
A 26-year-old woman with history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents with infertility. Which imaging modality is MOST appropriate to assess tubal patency?
A Transvaginal ultrasound
B Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
C CT scan of pelvis
D MRI of abdomen
Correct Answer:  B. Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
EXPLANATION

HSG is the gold standard for assessing tubal patency and detecting tubal blockage or damage. It uses radiographic contrast to visualize the fallopian tubes.

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Which stage of oogenesis is arrested at the time of ovulation?
A Prophase I
B Metaphase II
C Telophase II
D G1 phase
Correct Answer:  B. Metaphase II
EXPLANATION

The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase II at ovulation. It completes meiosis II only if fertilization occurs.

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Q.157 Medium Reproductive Health
A 32-year-old man presents with azoospermia. Semen analysis shows normal seminal fluid parameters but absence of spermatozoa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Hypogonadism
B Obstructive azoospermia
C Varicocele
D Erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer:  B. Obstructive azoospermia
EXPLANATION

Normal seminal fluid with absent sperm indicates obstruction in the reproductive tract rather than failed production. This is obstructive azoospermia, often due to vasectomy, absence of vas deferens, or ejaculatory duct obstruction.

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Which of the following contraceptive methods has the highest failure rate?
A Copper T 380A IUD
B Hormonal implants
C Spermicides alone
D Levonorgestrel-releasing IUD
Correct Answer:  C. Spermicides alone
EXPLANATION

Spermicides used alone have a failure rate of 18-28% with typical use. IUDs and implants have failure rates <1% with typical use.

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Q.159 Medium Reproductive Health
A 28-year-old woman has not conceived after 18 months of unprotected intercourse. Which investigation should be performed FIRST?
A Laparoscopy
B Hysterosalpingography
C Semen analysis of partner
D Endometrial biopsy
Correct Answer:  C. Semen analysis of partner
EXPLANATION

Male factor infertility accounts for 40% of cases. Semen analysis is non-invasive, cost-effective, and should be the first investigation when evaluating an infertile couple.

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Which hormone is primarily responsible for initiating and maintaining spermatogenesis?
A Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C Testosterone
D Prolactin
Correct Answer:  A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
EXPLANATION

FSH directly stimulates Sertoli cells in seminiferous tubules to initiate spermatogenesis. While LH and testosterone support the process, FSH is the primary initiator.

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