Central Exam — UPSC IAS / IPS
UPSC · SSC · Bank · Railway · NDA — Central Government Exam MCQ Practice
139 Questions 15 Topics Take Test
Advertisement
Showing 41–50 of 139 questions
Q.41 Medium
Consider the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is elected by members of Lok Sabha only
2. The Speaker can vote only in case of a tie
3. The Speaker cannot preside over joint sessions of Parliament
4. The Speaker's term is not fixed and can be terminated by a no-confidence motion

Which statements are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only
D All of the above
Correct Answer:  A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct - Speaker elected by Lok Sabha members.

Statement 2 is correct - Speaker has casting vote only in case of tie.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Speaker presides over joint sessions.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Speaker can be removed by a resolution supported by majority of total membership, not just a no-confidence motion.

Take Test
Q.42 Easy
The power to declare a law unconstitutional vests with:
A Parliament only
B The President only
C The Supreme Court and High Courts
D The Attorney General of India
Correct Answer:  C. The Supreme Court and High Courts
Explanation:

Under Articles 13, 226, and 32, both the Supreme Court and High Courts possess the power of judicial review to declare laws unconstitutional if they violate constitutional provisions.

This is a cornerstone of the Indian constitutional framework and the basic structure doctrine.

Take Test
Q.43 Hard
Which of the following can be amended by Parliament by simple majority without requiring ratification by state legislatures?
A Federal structure of the Constitution
B Powers of the President
C Language of the Constitution
D Representation in Rajya Sabha
Correct Answer:  C. Language of the Constitution
Explanation:

Article 368 distinguishes between amendments.

Changes to the language provisions (Part XVII) and other non-fundamental aspects can be amended by Parliament with simple majority.

Federal structure, President's powers, and state representation require special majority and sometimes state ratification under Article 368.

Take Test
Q.44 Easy
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment primarily addressed which of the following?
A Strengthening of Panchayati Raj institutions
B Urban local government
C Reservation for scheduled castes in Parliament
D State election commissions
Correct Answer:  A. Strengthening of Panchayati Raj institutions
Explanation:

The 73rd Amendment (1992) established constitutional provisions for Panchayati Raj (rural local government) with Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule.

The 74th Amendment (1992) addressed urban local government through municipal corporations.

Article 243 onwards deals with Panchayats.

Take Test
Q.45 Hard
During a National Emergency declared under Article 352, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A The President can issue ordinances
B Fundamental Rights can be suspended
C Parliament can extend its term beyond 5 years
D The President's emergency powers are unlimited and cannot be judicially reviewed
Correct Answer:  D. The President's emergency powers are unlimited and cannot be judicially reviewed
Explanation:

While during National Emergency the President has significant powers, they are not unlimited and subject to judicial review.

The Supreme Court has held (in Kesavananda Bharati case and later judgments) that even emergency powers are subject to constitutional limitations and the basic structure cannot be destroyed.

Take Test
Advertisement
Q.46 Medium
Under the Conduct of Elections Rules, which authority is responsible for delimitation of constituencies?
A Election Commission of India
B Delimitation Commission
C State Election Commissions
D President on advice of Cabinet
Correct Answer:  B. Delimitation Commission
Explanation:

A Delimitation Commission is constituted by the Government of India under Article 82 (for Lok Sabha) and Article 170 (for State Assemblies) to redraw constituency boundaries.

The most recent Delimitation Commission was constituted in 2008.

The Election Commission implements these delimitations.

Take Test
Q.47 Hard
Which of the following regarding cooperative societies is CORRECT after the 97th Constitutional Amendment?
A Cooperative societies are given the status of constitutional bodies
B Right to form cooperative societies is added as a Fundamental Right
C Cooperative societies are excluded from being considered associations
D The government must provide funding for all cooperative societies
Correct Answer:  B. Right to form cooperative societies is added as a Fundamental Right
Explanation:

The 97th Amendment (2011) inserted Article 19(1)(c) granting citizens the right to form and conduct cooperative societies.

This elevated the status of cooperative societies by making the right to form them a Fundamental Right.

Part IXB was added to provide for cooperative societies as constitutional bodies with representation provisions.

Take Test
Q.48 Easy
Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
A Federal, Democratic, Sovereign
B Socialist, Secular, Integrity
C Secular, Socialist, Integrity
D Democratic, Republican, Integrity
Correct Answer:  B. Socialist, Secular, Integrity
Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (also known as the Mini-Constitution) added three words to the Preamble: 'Socialist' (between 'Sovereign' and 'Democratic'), 'Secular' (between 'Sovereign' and 'Democratic'), and 'Integrity' (at the end).

This amendment was passed during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Take Test
Q.49 Medium
Under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, when the President issues a proclamation of Emergency in a State, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A The President can assume all executive and legislative powers of the State
B The Chief Minister must resign immediately upon issuance of the proclamation
C The State Assembly can be dissolved by the President
D The proclamation must be approved by Parliament within 2 months
Correct Answer:  B. The Chief Minister must resign immediately upon issuance of the proclamation
Explanation:

Article 356 provides for President's Rule in a State when constitutional machinery breaks down.

While the President can assume powers and dissolve the assembly, the Chief Minister is not automatically required to resign—though the government typically loses confidence.

The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within 2 months (Art. 356(4)).

Option B is incorrect as it states a mandatory requirement that doesn't exist in the Constitution.

Take Test
Q.50 Medium
Which Fundamental Right is NOT included in Part III (Articles 12-35) of the Indian Constitution but has been read into Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) through judicial interpretation by the Supreme Court?
A Right to Information
B Right to Free and Compulsory Education
C Right to Pollution-free Environment
D Right to Fair Trial
Correct Answer:  C. Right to Pollution-free Environment
Explanation:

The Right to a Pollution-free Environment and the Right to Live in a Healthy Environment have been read into Article 21 through landmark judgments (Subhash Kumar v.

State of Bihar, 1991; M.C.

Mehta v.

Union of India, 1992).

While Right to Information was later codified (RTI Act, 2005) and Right to Education became Article 21A (86th Amendment, 2002), the environmental right exists only through judicial interpretation of Article 21.

Take Test
IGET
iget AI
Online · Ask anything about exams
Hi! 👋 I'm your iget AI assistant.

Ask me anything about exam prep, MCQ solutions, study tips, or strategies! 🎯
UPSC strategy SSC CGL syllabus Improve aptitude NEET Biology tips