Quantitative Aptitude - MCQ Practice Questions

Step 1: Loss = 12%, so SP = 88% of CP.

Step 2: Let CP = x, then 0.88x = 1650.

Step 3: x = $\frac{1650}{0}$.88 = ₹1,875.

So option A is correct.

Step 1: CP = ₹450.

Marked Price = 450 × 1.60 = ₹720.

Step 2: SP after 10% discount = 720 × 0.90 = ₹648.

Step 3: Profit% = [(648 - 450)/450] × 100 = ($\frac{198}{450}$) × 100 = 44%.

So option B is correct.

Step 1: For first article with 20% profit: SP = ₹960, so CP₁ = $\frac{960}{1}$.20 = ₹800.

Step 2: For second article with 20% loss: SP = ₹960, so CP₂ = $\frac{960}{0}$.80 = ₹1,200.

Step 3: Total CP = 2,000, Total SP = 1,920.

Loss% = ($\frac{80}{2000}$) × 100 = 4%.

So option C is correct.

Step 1: SP = ₹12, Profit = 50%, so CP = $\frac{12}{1}$.50 = ₹8 per pen.

Step 2: Cost for 180 pens = 8 × 180 = ₹1,440.

So option A is correct.

Step 1: Interest = 2,928 - 2,400 = ₹528.

Step 2: Using SI = (P × R × T) / 100, we get 528 = (2,400 × R × 2) / 100.

Step 3: 528 = 48R, so R = 11% p.a.

Option B is correct.

Step 1: Interest = 4,392 - 3,600 = ₹792.

Step 2: Using SI = (P × R × T) / 100, we get 792 = (3,600 × 11 × T) / 100.

Step 3: 792 = 396T, so T = 2 years.

Option A is correct.

Using SI = (P × R × T) / 100, we have 3,600 = (8,000 × 15 × T) / 100.

Step 1: 3,600 = 1,200T.

Step 2: T = 3,$\frac{600}{1}$,200 = 3 years.

Option C is correct.

Step 1: Calculate SI = (P × R × T) / 100 = (12,000 × 7.5 × 4) / 100 = 360,$\frac{000}{100}$ = ₹3,600.

Step 2: Amount = Principal + SI = 12,000 + 3,600 = ₹15,600.

Option A is correct.

Let sum = P.

Step 1: SI₁ = (P × 9 × 5) / 100 = 45P/100.

Step 2: SI₂ = (P × 6 × 8) / 100 = 48P/100.

Step 3: Difference = 48P/100 - 45P/100 = 3P/100 = 840.

Step 4: P = 84,$\frac{000}{3}$ = ₹2,000.

Option A is correct.

Step 1: Extra interest earned on ₹5,000 in 4 years = ₹1,200.

Step 2: Using SI = (P × R × T) / 100, we have 1,200 = (5,000 × R × 4) / 100.

Step 3: 1,200 = 200R.

Step 4: R = 1,$\frac{200}{200}$ = 6% p.a.

Option B is correct.

Step 1: Use compound interest formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n.

Step 2: A = 12000(1 + $\frac{8}{100}$)^2 = 12000(1.08)^2 = 12000 × 1.1664 = 13,996.80.

Step 3: The amount after 2 years is ₹13,996.80.

Step 1: Use formula 2P = P(1.10)^n where 2P is the doubled amount.

Step 2: Divide by P to get 2 = (1.10)^n.

Step 3: Taking log: n = log(2)/log(1.10) = 0.$\frac{301}{0}$.0414 ≈ 7.2 years.

Step 1: Use formula A = P(1 + r/100)^n.

Step 2: 29160 = 25000(1 + r/100)^2.

Step 3: (1 + r/100)^2 = $\frac{29160}{25000}$ = 1.1664.

Step 4: 1 + r/100 = √1.1664 = 1.08.

Step 5: r/100 = 0.08, so r = 8% per annum.

Step 1: For quarterly compounding, use A = P(1 + r/400)^(4n).

Step 2: A = 40000(1 + $\frac{10}{400}$)^4 = 40000(1.025)^4.

Step 3: (1.025)^4 = 1.10381289.

Step 4: A = 40000 × 1.10381289 = ₹44,152.52 ≈ ₹44,155.06.

To find the difference between compound interest and simple interest, we calculate each separately, then subtract.

Step 1: Calculate Simple Interest

Simple interest uses the formula $SI=\frac{P\times R\times T}{100}$, where principal $P=₹5000$, rate $R=12\%$ per annum, and time $T=3$ years.

Step 2: Calculate Compound Interest

Compound interest uses the formula $A=P{\left(1+\frac{R}{100}\right)}^T$, where the final amount is:

**Step 3: Evaluate $(1.12{)}^3$

Therefore:

The compound interest is:

Step 4: Find the Difference

**Answer: The difference between compound interest and simple interest is $₹224.64$ (Option C)**

Step 1: Use A = P(1 + r/100)^n, rearranged to find P = A/(1 + r/100)^n.

Step 2: 15625 = P(1.25)^3.

Step 3: P = 15625/(1.25)^3 = $\frac{15625}{1}$.953125 = ₹8,000.

The original principal was ₹8,000.

Step 1: Discount = 15% of ₹800 = 0.15 × 800 = ₹120.

Step 2: Selling Price = Marked Price - Discount = 800 - 120 = ₹680.

Therefore, option A is correct.

Step 1: Increase in price = ₹50 - ₹40 = ₹10.

Step 2: Percentage increase = (Increase/Original Price) × 100 = ($\frac{10}{40}$) × 100 = 25%.

Therefore, option C is correct.

Step 1: Percentage = (Marks obtained/Total marks) × 100 = ($\frac{72}{120}$) × 100.

Step 2: = 0.6 × 100 = 60%.

Therefore, option B is correct.

Step 1: Profit = 20% of ₹250 = 0.20 × 250 = ₹50.

Step 2: Selling Price = Cost Price + Profit = 250 + 50 = ₹300.

Therefore, option B is correct.