Home Subjects KPSC (Karnataka) General Studies II

KPSC (Karnataka)
General Studies II

Karnataka Public Service Commission

20 Q 2 Topics Take Mock Test
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Difficulty: All Easy Medium Hard 11–20 of 20
Topics in KPSC (Karnataka)
All General Studies I 100 General Studies II 100
In the context of governance, which committee is tasked with examining the feasibility of implementing Uniform Civil Code in India?
A Srivastava Committee
B Gopal Singh Committee
C Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee
D L.M. Singhvi Committee
Correct Answer:  C. Justice B.N. Srikrishna Committee
EXPLANATION

Justice B.N. Srikrishna headed the committee that examined the feasibility and implications of implementing a Uniform Civil Code.

Test
Which of the following constitutional articles deals with the appointment of the Attorney General of India?
A Article 75
B Article 76
C Article 77
D Article 78
Correct Answer:  B. Article 76
EXPLANATION

Article 76 deals with the appointment of the Attorney General of India by the President.

Test
Which Supreme Court judgment in 2023 made significant changes to bail provisions and criminal procedure?
A Navtej Singh Johar case
B Aruna Shanbaug case
C Sathananthan v. State of Tamil Nadu
D Arvind Kejriwal bail case
Correct Answer:  C. Sathananthan v. State of Tamil Nadu
EXPLANATION

The Sathananthan judgment brought significant reforms in bail provisions and criminal procedure in 2023.

Test
Under the Constitution of India, which authority can appoint judges of the High Court?
A Chief Minister of the State
B President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the State Governor
C Chief Justice of India alone
D Union Law Minister
Correct Answer:  B. President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the State Governor
EXPLANATION

Article 217 provides that judges of High Courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State.

Test
Which Supreme Court judgment established the principle of 'Basic Structure Doctrine' in Indian Constitutional law?
A Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
B Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
C Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
D Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (1951)
Correct Answer:  A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
EXPLANATION

The Kesavananda Bharati judgment (1973) established that certain basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended, even by Parliament.

Test
Which of the following is a characteristic of Indian Federalism?
A States have supreme legislative authority
B The Union Constitution can be unilaterally amended by Parliament without state consent
C The Center and States have equal powers in all matters
D States cannot raise their own revenue
Correct Answer:  B. The Union Constitution can be unilaterally amended by Parliament without state consent
EXPLANATION

Indian federalism is 'cooperative federalism' where Parliament can amend the Constitution without state consent, making it different from dual federalism.

Test
Which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between Articles 256 and 257 of the Indian Constitution?
A They both deal with inter-state disputes
B Article 256 deals with State compliance with Union laws; Article 257 deals with Union directives to States
C They are identical in their provisions
D Neither article has any practical application
Correct Answer:  B. Article 256 deals with State compliance with Union laws; Article 257 deals with Union directives to States
EXPLANATION

Article 256 ensures States comply with Union laws; Article 257 empowers the Union to direct States on specific matters.

Test
The concept of 'Concurrent Jurisdiction' in the Concurrent List implies which of the following?
A Only the Union Parliament can legislate
B Only State Legislatures can legislate
C Both Union and State can legislate, but Union law prevails in case of conflict
D Neither Union nor State can legislate
Correct Answer:  C. Both Union and State can legislate, but Union law prevails in case of conflict
EXPLANATION

In the Concurrent List, both Union and State governments can legislate, but Union law takes precedence in case of contradiction.

Test
How many subjects are listed in the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule?
A 47 subjects
B 52 subjects
C 66 subjects
D 97 subjects
Correct Answer:  A. 47 subjects
EXPLANATION

The Concurrent List contains 47 subjects over which both Union and State governments can legislate.

Test
A state government wants to implement a new policy affecting inter-state water resources. Which constitutional provision would primarily govern this?
A Article 246 (Seventh Schedule)
B Article 262 (Inter-State Water Disputes)
C Article 256 (Compliance of States with Union)
D Article 251 (Inconsistency between Union and State Laws)
Correct Answer:  B. Article 262 (Inter-State Water Disputes)
EXPLANATION

Article 262 specifically deals with inter-state water disputes and their resolution mechanisms.

Test
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