Home Subjects NEET Zoology Reproductive Health

NEET Zoology
Reproductive Health

Zoology questions for NEET UG — Animal Kingdom, Human Physiology, Genetics, Evolution.

17 Q 6 Topics Take Mock Test
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Topics in NEET Zoology
A couple with unexplained infertility (normal semen analysis, ovulation confirmed, patent tubes) is offered IVF. What is the rationale for this recommendation?
A To improve sperm motility through capacitation
B To increase the number of fertilization attempts and bypass potential sperm-egg interaction defects
C To eliminate the need for progesterone supplementation
D To prevent spontaneous miscarriage
Correct Answer:  B. To increase the number of fertilization attempts and bypass potential sperm-egg interaction defects
EXPLANATION

In unexplained infertility, IVF allows multiple sperm-egg interactions and can overcome subtle defects in gamete interaction that cannot be detected by standard testing.

Test
A man with cystic fibrosis presents with infertility. Which finding is characteristic in his semen analysis?
A Azoospermia with normal seminal fluid
B Oligozoospermia with reduced seminal volume
C Asthenozoospermia with abnormal sperm morphology
D Normal semen analysis but erectile dysfunction
Correct Answer:  A. Azoospermia with normal seminal fluid
EXPLANATION

Cystic fibrosis typically results in congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens (CBAVD), leading to azoospermia with normal seminal fluid parameters (obstructive azoospermia).

Test
A 27-year-old nulliparous woman with endometriosis and infertility is considering assisted reproductive technology. Which ART technique would be most beneficial for her?
A Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
B In vitro fertilization (IVF)
C Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
D Embryo transfer without prior ovarian stimulation
Correct Answer:  B. In vitro fertilization (IVF)
EXPLANATION

IVF is the gold standard for endometriosis-related infertility as it bypasses tubal and peritoneal factors. IUI has lower success rates in endometriosis. GIFT is rarely used now.

Test
A couple has been trying to conceive for 2 years without success. The male partner has normal semen parameters, but the female partner has elevated FSH levels. What does this indicate?
A Polycystic ovary syndrome
B Diminished ovarian reserve
C Hyperprolactinemia
D Thyroid dysfunction
Correct Answer:  B. Diminished ovarian reserve
EXPLANATION

Elevated basal FSH (>10 IU/L on day 3) indicates reduced ovarian reserve, meaning fewer eggs remain in the ovaries, affecting fertility prognosis.

Test
A 35-year-old woman with three previous cesarean deliveries presents with vaginal bleeding at 32 weeks. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Placental abruption
B Placenta previa
C Placenta accreta
D Morbidly adherent placenta
Correct Answer:  B. Placenta previa
EXPLANATION

# Diagnosis of Vaginal Bleeding in Third Trimester with Previous Cesarean Deliveries

This clinical scenario involves a pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and a significant obstetric history of three prior cesarean deliveries—key risk factors that guide differential diagnosis.

Step 1: Analyze the Clinical Presentation

Third trimester vaginal bleeding (after 20 weeks) narrows the differential to three main conditions:

- Placenta previa (painless bleeding)

- Placental abruption (painful bleeding with contractions)

- Placenta accreta/morbidly adherent placenta (usually asymptomatic until delivery)

The patient presents with vaginal bleeding without mention of abdominal pain or contractions, suggesting painless hemorrhage.

Step 2: Evaluate Risk Factors for Placenta Previa

Placenta previa risk increases with:

- Advanced maternal age (\(\geq 35\) years) ✓

- Multiple previous cesarean deliveries ✓

- Multiparity ✓

- Uterine scar tissue from prior procedures

This patient has multiple strong risk factors for placenta previa.

Step 3: Distinguish from Other Conditions

\[\text{Placental abruption} \rightarrow \text{painful bleeding (contractions, abdominal pain)}\]
\[\text{Placenta accreta} \rightarrow \text{typically asymptomatic; diagnosed by imaging/delivery}\]
\[\text{Placenta previa} \rightarrow \text{painless vaginal bleeding in 2nd/3rd trimester}\]

The absence of pain and the classic risk factors point away from abruption and accreta.

Step 4: Clinical Diagnosis

Placenta previa—where the placenta partially or completely covers the internal cervical os—is the most common cause of painless third-trimester bleeding and is strongly associated with maternal age, multiparity, and prior uterine surgery.

Answer: Placenta previa (Option B)

The combination of painless vaginal bleeding at 32 weeks, advanced maternal age (35 years), and three previous cesarean deliveries makes placenta previa the most likely diagnosis. Confirmation requires transvaginal ultrasound to visualize placental location.

Test
During oogenesis, at which stage does the first meiotic division complete?
A Before puberty in fetal ovaries
B At ovulation
C After fertilization when sperm penetrates egg
D During fetal development but arrested at metaphase II
Correct Answer:  B. At ovulation
EXPLANATION

Oocytes arrest in prophase I during fetal development and remain in this arrested state (dictyotene). First meiotic division completes just before ovulation, producing secondary oocyte and polar body.

Test
A 26-year-old male presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction and reduced sperm count. Testosterone level is 2.5 ng/mL (normal: 3-10 ng/mL). What could be the underlying cause?
A Primary hypogonadism
B Secondary hypogonadism from pituitary dysfunction
C Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D Klinefelter syndrome with normal testosterone
Correct Answer:  B. Secondary hypogonadism from pituitary dysfunction
EXPLANATION

Low testosterone with erectile dysfunction requires assessment of LH and FSH. If LH/FSH are low, it indicates secondary hypogonadism (pituitary/hypothalamic origin).

Test
During in vitro fertilization (IVF), what is the purpose of using GnRH agonists in the downregulation phase?
A To increase FSH levels for superovulation
B To suppress endogenous GnRH, preventing premature LH surge
C To directly stimulate ovarian follicles
D To increase progesterone production
Correct Answer:  B. To suppress endogenous GnRH, preventing premature LH surge
EXPLANATION

GnRH agonists cause initial stimulation followed by desensitization, suppressing endogenous LH and FSH to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian hyperstimulation.

Test
A couple has been trying to conceive for 2 years without success. The male partner has normal semen analysis. What is the next appropriate investigation for the female partner?
A Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
B Laparoscopy
C Hormone level assessment (Day 3 FSH, LH)
D Pelvic ultrasound for ovarian assessment
Correct Answer:  A. Hysterosalpingography (HSG)
EXPLANATION

HSG is the first-line radiological investigation for assessing tubal patency and uterine cavity in suspected secondary infertility after normal male factor evaluation.

Test
A 28-year-old female reports irregular menstrual cycles with excessive bleeding. Laboratory tests show elevated FSH and normal prolactin levels. What could be the likely diagnosis?
A Hyperprolactinemia
B Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI)
C Thyroid dysfunction
D Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Correct Answer:  B. Premature Ovarian Insufficiency (POI)
EXPLANATION

Elevated FSH with irregular cycles indicates diminished ovarian reserve characteristic of POI. PCOS typically shows normal or low FSH with hyperandrogenism.

Test
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