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Biotechnology

Genetic engineering, fermentation, cell biology

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Difficulty: All Easy Medium Hard 61–70 of 130
Topics in Biotechnology
During DNA amplification using PCR, if the initial template has 2 copies, approximately how many copies will be present after 30 cycles (assuming 100% efficiency)?
A 60 copies
B 230 copies
C 2 × 10⁹ copies
D 2 × 10⁶ copies
Correct Answer:  C. 2 × 10⁹ copies
EXPLANATION

PCR follows exponential amplification: Final copies = Initial copies × 2ⁿ, where n = number of cycles. 2 × 2³⁰ = 2 × 1.07 × 10⁹ ≈ 2 × 10⁹ copies.

Test
In RAPD-PCR (Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA), what is the primary application in agricultural biotechnology?
A Genetic fingerprinting and diversity analysis
B Gene sequencing
C Protein expression profiling
D Enzyme kinetics measurement
Correct Answer:  A. Genetic fingerprinting and diversity analysis
EXPLANATION

RAPD-PCR uses random primers to generate DNA fingerprints for assessing genetic diversity, distinguishing crop varieties, and parentage analysis in breeding programs.

Test
Which PCR variant is specifically designed for amplifying and detecting microRNA (miRNA) targets in clinical samples?
A Digital PCR
B Stem-loop RT-PCR
C Long-range PCR
D Inverse PCR
Correct Answer:  B. Stem-loop RT-PCR
EXPLANATION

Stem-loop RT-PCR uses a stem-loop primer structure that specifically binds to mature miRNAs, making it ideal for miRNA detection and quantification in diagnostic applications.

Test
What is the principle behind site-directed mutagenesis using PCR?
A Random mutations introduced during amplification
B Primers containing desired mutations are used to introduce specific changes
C Chemical mutagens are added to the PCR reaction
D UV radiation induces mutations during amplification
Correct Answer:  B. Primers containing desired mutations are used to introduce specific changes
EXPLANATION

Site-directed mutagenesis uses primers with mismatches at the desired mutation site. During PCR extension, the mutated sequence is copied, incorporating the specific change.

Test
In gene therapy, AAV (Adeno-associated virus) vectors are preferred because they:
A Are highly immunogenic
B Have low immunogenicity and high tissue tropism specificity
C Can integrate large genes (>10 kb)
D Require integration for expression
Correct Answer:  B. Have low immunogenicity and high tissue tropism specificity
EXPLANATION

AAVs are preferred due to minimal immunogenic response, ability to target specific tissues, and safe integration properties, despite a packaging limit of ~4.7 kb.

Test
Which of the following best describes the principle of digital PCR (dPCR)?
A Uses thermal cycling like conventional PCR
B Partitions samples into thousands of individual reactions for absolute quantification
C Requires fewer cycles than real-time PCR
D Uses fluorescent probes similar to TaqMan
Correct Answer:  B. Partitions samples into thousands of individual reactions for absolute quantification
EXPLANATION

Digital PCR partitions the sample into thousands of individual reactions (droplets), allowing absolute quantification by counting positive and negative partitions without requiring standard curves.

Test
In DNA barcoding for species identification, which gene region is most commonly used?
A 18S rRNA
B Cytochrome c oxidase subunit I (COI)
C 16S rRNA
D 28S rRNA
Correct Answer:  B. Cytochrome c oxidase subunit I (COI)
EXPLANATION

COI (cytochrome c oxidase I) is the standard DNA barcode for animal identification due to its high interspecific variation and low intraspecific variation.

Test
What is the purpose of using a 'hot start' Taq polymerase in PCR?
A Increase reaction speed
B Prevent non-specific amplification at room temperature
C Increase primer specificity
D Reduce the number of cycles needed
Correct Answer:  B. Prevent non-specific amplification at room temperature
EXPLANATION

Hot start Taq polymerase is inactive at room temperature and becomes activated only at high temperatures (95°C), preventing unwanted non-specific amplification during setup.

Test
In next-generation sequencing (NGS), what is the primary advantage of massively parallel sequencing over conventional Sanger sequencing?
A Lower cost and higher throughput
B Higher accuracy only
C Simpler sample preparation
D No need for PCR amplification
Correct Answer:  A. Lower cost and higher throughput
EXPLANATION

NGS provides massively parallel sequencing, generating millions of reads simultaneously, offering significantly lower cost per base and much higher throughput compared to Sanger sequencing.

Test
Which annealing temperature is most appropriate for primers with a GC content of 50%?
A 48-52°C
B 55-60°C
C 65-70°C
D 75-80°C
Correct Answer:  B. 55-60°C
EXPLANATION

Annealing temperature is typically 3-5°C below the Tm (melting temperature). For 50% GC content, Tm ≈ 55-60°C, making this the appropriate annealing range.

Test
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